/ 让学习更有效 新课备课备考 | 英语学科
/ 让学习更有效 新课备课备考 | 英语学科
2025-2026学年七年级英语上册单元复习考点培优沪教版（2024）Unit 3 The seasons
专题10 阅读理解
学校:___________姓名：___________班级：___________考号：___________
根据短文内容，选择最佳答案。
American people like to say “Thank you” when others help them or say something kind to them. People of many countries do so, too. It’s a very good habit.
You should say “Thank you”, when someone passes you the salt on the table. When someone walking ahead of you keeps the door open for you, when someone says you have done your work well or you have bought a nice thing, or your city is very beautiful. “Thank you” is used not only between friends, but also between parents and children, brothers and sisters.
“Excuse me” is another short sentence they use. When you hear someone say so behind you, you know that someone wants to walk past without touching you. It’s not polite to break others when they are talking. If you want to speak to one of them, say “Excuse me” first and then begin talking. You should also do so when you begin to cough or make any noise before others.
Let’s learn to say “Thank you” and “Excuse me”.
1．You should say “Thank you” when ________.
A．you say something kind to others B．you help others
C．someone helps you D．you need others to help you
2．From the passage we know “Thank you” is ________.
A．widely used in the world B．used more than “Excuse me”
C．used only by Americans D．used only between friends
3．You should say “Excuse me” if you want to ________.
A．cough B．make some noise C．go first D．all of above (上面)
4．When you are going to ask someone to tell you the way, you should say “________”.
A．Thank you B．That’s kind of you C．Excuse me D．I’m sorry
5．This passage mainly tells us the way ________。
A．to be happy B．to be polite
C．to help others D．to learn from Americans
You are just waking up in the spring of 2030. Your Internet of Things bedroom opens solar powered e-windows and plays gentle music while your smart lighting displays a montage of beachfront (滨海区) sunrises from your recent vacation.
Your shower uses very little water or soap. It recycles your grey water and puts the excess heat back into your home’s integrated operating system. While you dress, your artificial intelligence (AI) assistant shares your schedule for the day and plays your favorite tunes.
You still start your day with caffeine but it comes from your IoT refrigerator which is capable of providing a coffeehouse experience in your home. A hot breakfast tailored to your specific nutritional needs (based on chemical analysis from your trips to the “smart toilet”) is waiting for you in the kitchen.
When it’s time to leave, an on-demand transport system has three cars waiting for you, your spouse and your kids. On the road, driverless cars and trucks move with mathematical precision, without traffic jams, routine maintenance or road rage. Accident rates are near zero.
6．All the things in the passage happen in the year of ______.
A．2025 B．2030 C．2035 D．2040
7．What can your AI assistant do for you
A．Share your schedule. B．Cook your breakfast.
C．Play your favorite music. D．Both A and C．
8．How will your breakfast be tailored to your needs
A．By analysis on your waste. B．By your daily diary.
C．By your requirement. D．By what you eat everyday.
9．Which is NOT one of the advantages of the transportation in the future
A．No traffic jams. B．No routine maintenance.
C．Road rage. D．Lower accident rates.
10．What’s the best title for the passage
A．One Morning in the Future B．What We Eat in the Morning
C．Routine in the Morning D．Everything in the Future
The Women’s Sports Foundation discovered sports can bring a lot of benefits (益处) for girls.
Here are a few:
Playing sports makes girls do better in school. Exercise improves (改善) learning, memory (记忆力),and concentration (专注). These can give active (活跃的) girls an advantage (优势) in classroom.
Sports have hidden (隐藏的) health benefits. Some benefits of sports are obvious (明显的)—like helping girls keep fit and maintain a healthy weight. Playing sports can also make them less likely (不太可能) to get breast cancer (乳腺癌) and osteoporosis (骨质疏松症) later in life.
Playing sports builds self-confidence (自信). Girls playing sports feel better about themselves. ①It helps to build confidence when you see your skills improved and your goals (目标) becoming reality (现实).
Exercise can cu the pressure (压力). Playing sports can help you deal with pressure, because exercise is a great way to relieve stress (缓解紧张) and fight depression (对抗抑郁). ②Plus, if you have friends on the team, they will support (支持) you both on and off the field (运动场).
11．Exercise can give girls advantages in classroom because ________.
a. it improves girls’ learning b. it keeps girls fit
c. it’s good for girls’ memory d. it improves girls’ concentration
A．a, b and c B．a, b and d C．a, c and d D．b, c and d
12．Sports have the health benefits except (除了) ________.
A．helping you maintain a healthy weight B．preventing (预防) osteoporosis
C．keeping you fit D．improving your skills
13．Which of the following statements is NOT true
A．Sports have hidden health benefits.
B．You won’t get breast cancer if you play sports.
C．Playing sports makes girls feel better about themselves.
D．Playing sports can relieve your stress.
14．What is the best title for the passage
A．Benefits of Playing Sports B．Playing Sports and Self-Confidence
C．Sports and Girls’ Happiness D．Benefits for Girls to Play Sports
About 2.4 billion (十亿) years ago, there was little oxygen (氧气) in the air, so no animal or plant life could live. Instead, lots of microbes (微生物) took in carbon dioxide (二氧化碳), and one of them called cyanobacteria (蓝藻) gave off oxygen.
At first it wasn’t much, but in only about 400 million years, about 1/10 of the air became oxygen. So plants and animals could evolve (进化) and more plants joined the oxygen-making party.
But why did the bacteria (细菌) start to make oxygen Scientists guessed (猜测) it was because of the sunlight. They noticed (发现) that the bacteria started to make oxygen at the same time as the slowing down of the Earth’s rotation (地球自转). Slower (更慢的) rotation means (意味着) longer (更长的) days. That means the bacteria could get more sunlight for one time. Then the scientists made a test (测试) with a particular bacterium (细菌). It showed that if it gets more sunlight, the bacterium will make more oxygen.
15．No animal or plant life could live about 2.4 billion years ago, because ________.
A．there was no water B．there was no sunlight
C．there was carbon dioxide D．there was no oxygen
16．According to the passage, which of the following about cyanobacteria is true
A．It’s blue. B．It’s a kind of plant.
C．It could make oxygen. D．It could make carbon dioxide.
17．Why did the bacteria start to make oxygen
A．There was more carbon dioxide for them to take in.
B．There was more water for them to live.
C．The Earth’s rotation made them more active (活跃的).
D．The longer days made them get more sunlight.
18．Where does the passage probably come from
A．The science section of a newspaper. B．A magazine of health care.
C．A website of amusement. D．A story book.
Amach Reed is the winner of The Kids News Short Story Competition (儿童新闻短篇小说比赛) for the past two years. She has some great advice (建议) to help kids write their stories.
1. Write about something you like
My first tip (提示) would have to be writing about something you are interested in. Writing is so much easier if you enjoy the story.
2. Read and research (研究)
Reading books and doing some research is really important. I get great ideas for characters (角色) from the books I read.
3. Put yourself in your character’s shoes
Try to put yourself inside your character’s mind (思想) and feelings (感情). A big part (部分) of writing is taking yourself out of your own self (自我) and your own life.
4. Expand (扩大) your vocabulary (词汇量)
Try using new and interesting words. New words and description (描述) really bring your story to life.
5. Proofread (校阅)
Proofreading is not the most exciting thing but I find reading your story aloud (出声地) helps improve your story.
6. Have a plan
Have a clear (明确的) idea about the kind of story you want to write. Do you want it to be funny or sad, or set in the past or the future (未来) If you get this base (出发点), you can then be really creative (有创造力的) and just let your ideas pour out (畅所欲言) onto the page.
19．You should read books to ________.
A．enjoy the story
B．get great ideas for characters
C．make your story interesting
D．set a base for your story
20．What does “Put yourself in your character’s shoes” mean in Tip 3
A．To wear your character’s shoes.
B．To let your character wear your shoes.
C．To let your character be a symbol (象征) of love.
D．To think as if (像······一样) you are the character.
21．What is the best title for the passage
A．Six Tips for a Great Short Story B．Six Tips for a Great Long Story
C．Six Tips to Win a Short Story Competition D．Six Tips to Be Creative
Most leaves (树叶) are green because of chlorophyll (叶绿素)—a chemical (化学物质) inside them. Chlorophyll is bright green. It helps leaves use sunlight energy (能量) to make sugars (糖分), so the tree can then use them for its own energy! But, Chlorophyll isn’t the only thing that gives leaves color.
Leaves have lots of other colorful pigments (色素) inside them. They are red, yellow, orange, and even purple. You can see these pigments in carrots, cabbage, or cherries. All of these colorful (多彩的) pigments have special jobs, but only chlorophyll helps a plant (植物) make the sugar.
In green leaves, there is so much chlorophyll. Its green color covers up all of the other colors. So in spring and summer, we don’t see the red, yellow, and orange pigments in the leaves—we just see the green chlorophyll.
But when summer starts to turn into fall (秋季), the days get shorter (更短的). There are less (更少的) sunlight hitting the tree’s leaves… so the tree starts to make less chlorophyll. Then the leaves become less green, and we can see more of the other colors!
22．______ helps leaves use sunlight to make sugars.
A．Chlorophyll B．The red pigment C．The yellow pigment D．The orange pigment
23．Which of the following about chlorophyll are TRUE according to the passage
a.Chlorophyll is the only thing that gives leaves color.
b.It’s a green pigment.
c.Its color covers up all of the other colors in green leaves.
d.Sunlight helps the tree make chlorophyll.
A．a and c. B．a and d. C．a, c and d. D．b, c and d.
24．Why do leaves become yellow or red in fall
A．Chlorophyll becomes yellow and red pigments in fall.
B．There is less chlorophyll, so other colorful pigments show up.
C．The sun shines more red and yellow light on leaves.
D．Leaves make more yellow and red pigments in fall.
Kids can start a sense of humor (幽默感) at a very young age. To develop their sense of humor, you must know how to make them happy in different ages.
Babies
Babies don’t really know humor, but they do know when you’re smiling (微笑) and happy. If you make funny noises (声音；响声) and then smile, your baby can feel your joy (快乐).
Toddlers (学步的儿童)
Toddlers like physical (有形的) humor. When kids start to learn to speak, nonsense (无意义的) words are funny for them—and this will continue (持续) into the preschool years.
Preschoolers (学前儿童)
A preschooler is more likely to find humor in pictures like a car with square (正方形的) wheels (车轮) or a pig wearing sunglasses. Things like a horse saying mo o and a pig saying mew are also funny for this age group (组；群).
School-Age Kids (学龄儿童)
When kids move into kindergarten (幼儿园), wordplay (文字游戏) will be funny. They may find the joy of telling jokes (笑话) and will repeat the same jokes over and over.
25．What can you do to make a baby happy
a. Smile.
b. Be happy.
c. Make funny noises and then smile.
d. Let them know something about humor.
A．a, b and c B．a, b and d
C．a, c and d D．b, c and d
26．Preschoolers will think ________ is funny.
A．a picture of a car with big wheels
B．a cat saying mew
C．a picture of a pig eating
D．a dog saying moo
27．A ________ will think telling jokes funny.
A．baby B．toddler C．preschooler D．school-age kid
Laurent Veyet is a cook. He is making foods with something surprising: insects (昆虫).
One of his foods is made of yellow mealworms (黄粉虫), grasshoppers (蚂蚱) and chocolate. The cook said the perfect (完美的) meal for first-timers (初次尝试的人) was a pasta (意大利面) made with mealworms, sweet potatoes and young insects. He said, “There are some really interesting flavors.”
Insects can give us many nutrients (营养) and are good for the environment (环境). The European Food Safety Agency (欧洲食品安全局), EFSA, in January said humans can eat mealworms.
We can use insects in many different meals. We can cook them whole (整个的), or grind (磨碎) them to help make foods like bread. Anyway, they can be delicious (美味的).
Soheil Ayari was a customer of Laurent’s restaurant (饭店). He said, “It tastes good.” Ayari’s young daughter also enjoyed the food: “It’s delicious. I like it very much.”
Stefan De Keersmaecker is a health and food safety spokesman (健康和食品安全发言人) at the European Commission (欧盟委员会). He said, “Insects are nutritious. They can help us follow a healthier diet.”
28．According to Laurent Veyet, what is the best food for a first-timer
A．An insect salad.
B．Bread with ground mealworms.
C．Yellow mealworms, grasshoppers and chocolate.
D．A pasta made with mealworms, sweet potatoes and young insects.
29．Why did the author put Soheil Ayari's words in the passage
A．To prove insects can give us many nutrients.
B．To prove we can use the mealworm in many different meals.
C．To prove insects can be delicious.
D．To prove insects can help us follow a more healthy diet.
30．From Stefan De Keersmaecker, we can learn that _______.
A．insects are healthy food B．insects are delicious
C．insects are good for the environment D．humans can eat insects
Traditionally (传统上), English food consisted of (包含) meat and two vegetables. That is to say a meal would be meat and two vegetables. The meat would be beef, pork or chicken. Of course, one of the vegetables was usually potatoes and the other might be peas or carrots.
Nowadays (如今), all this has changed. A popular dish is “curry” (咖喱), Indian (印度的) food. India was a British (英国的) colony (殖民地), and many immigrants (移民) came to Britain from India in the 1950s. Naturally, they brought their customs and their food. This led to (导致) many Indian restaurants opening, and now you can buy Indian food in any town.
Another common (常见的) food in the UK is Italian (意大利的) food. Pasta is on the table of many homes every day, and you can order (订购) takeaway (外卖) pizza in any place of this country.
Of course, if you visit England from China, you won't have to go far to get Chinese food. Almost every town has a Chinese restaurant or takeaway. In big cities such as (例如) London you can visit Chinatown. Here there are many Chinese restaurants and Chinese supermarkets (超市). Even the street names are written (被书写) in both Chinese and English.
One popular English dish is the traditional breakfast. This is made of bacon, sausage, eggs, beans, mushrooms, tomatoes and toast, with a large cup of tea.
31．According to the passage, which of the following is the traditional English food
A．Beef, pork and potatoes. B．Beef, pork and chicken.
C．Pork, potatoes and carrots. D．Potatoes, peas and carrots.
32．Curry is a food from _______.
A．Britain B．India C．Italy D．China
33．In _______ the street names are written in both Chinese and English.
A．India B．Italy C．China D．Chinatown
34．What does the passage mainly talk about
A．Traditional English food. B．Common food in Britain.
C．Chinatown in Britain. D．The popular English breakfast.
We cave (雕刻) Halloween pumpkins (南瓜) into jack-o’-lanterns (空心南瓜灯). Are they different from cooking pumpkins And are they any good to eat
Halloween pumpkins don’t taste very good. “The uncut (未切开的) Halloween pumpkin is safe to eat; however, it is not the best type (种类) to use for cooking,” Daria McKelvey, from Missouri Botanical Garden, tells Mental Floss. “We grow Halloween pumpkins for their large size, not the flavor (味道).”
The best-tasting pumpkins should be easy to tell apart from the Halloween pumpkins: Cooking pumpkins are smaller, sweeter (更甜的), have a thicker (更厚的) rind (外壳), and have fewer fibers (纤维), making them easier to cook with—but not so good for carving.
If you do want to make some food with your Halloween pumpkins, you can roast (烘烤) the seeds (种子). The pumpkin seeds can be a tasty and nutritious snack (小吃). You can also bake (烘烤) the flesh (果肉) into a dessert.
35．From the passage, we can learn ________.
A．jack-o’-lanterns are made of the Halloween pumpkins
B．Halloween pumpkins taste very good
C．all the Halloween pumpkins are safe to eat
D．Daria McKelvey grows Halloween pumpkins for their flavor
36．What does the underlined word “it” in Paragraph 2 refer to
A．The Halloween pumpkin. B．The pumpkin seller (销售者).
C．The cooking pumpkin. D．The pumpkin seed.
37．The best-tasting pumpkins ________.
a. are smaller b. have thicker flesh
c. have fewer fibers d. are not easy to cave into jack-o’-lanterns
A．a and b B．a, b and c C．a, c and d D．a, b, c and d
You may hear an Australian man survived (存活；幸存) a crocodile attack (袭击) by poking (戳) it in the eye. But is that the best way to deal with such a big and dangerous animal
Going for the eyes is like the number one way to try to survive this. Around the eyes is also the ear right behind the eye. And so if you miss (错过) the eye, there is a chance that you can cause (引起) them some pain (疼痛) by hitting (撞击) them and striking (击打) them in the eardrum (耳膜).
You shouldn’t prove (证明) you are more powerful than them. If they feel a danger to them, they will withdraw (撤退). Does that also apply (适用) to a bear or a snake or other wild animal attacks
The answer is “Yes”. You control (控制) the head, and then you control the animal. Don’t care how big it is, you go for its eyes, its nose, its throat. These things can’t be protected because they have to be exposed (无遮蔽的).
Now, let’s talk about geese. I’m bigger than the goose.
38．According to the passage, to survive from an animal attack, you can ________.
a. go for its eyes b. go for its nose c. go for its throat d. go for its eardrum
A．a and b B．a, b and c C．b, c and d D．a, b, c and d
39．________, the animal will withdraw.
A．If you poke it B．If you are more powerful than it
C．If it feels a danger to it D．If you cause it some pain
40．The last paragraph of this passage would most likely talk about ________.
A．how to survive a crocodile attack B．how to survive a goose attack
C．how to survive a bear attack D．how to survive a snake attack
In the United States and Canada, there are over 6,000 museums, almost twice as many as there were 25 years ago. However, they have changed a lot. They are no longer places where one “should” go—they are places to enjoy.
At a science museum in Canada, you can feel your hair stand on end as harmless electricity passes through your body. At the Children’s Museum in New York, you can play the African drums. There are no “Do Not Touch” signs in some other museums in the USA．More and more museum directors (馆长) have realized that people learn best when they can become part of what they are seeing. In many science museums, the visitors are encouraged to touch, listen, and experiment so as to find scientific rules for themselves.
The old museums have been changing and the government is encouraging the building of new, modern museums. One cause of all these changes is the growing number of young people in the population. They see things in a new and different way. They want art that they can take part in. The same is true of science and history.
41．There were about ________ museums in America and Canada 25 years ago.
A．3,000 B．4,000 C．5,000 D．6,000
42．In many science museums the visitors can ________.
A．play the drums B．make signs C．change their rules D．do experiments (实验)
43．Which of the following is TRUE
A．You cannot see “Do Not Touch” signs in some modern museums in America.
B．All the things can be touched in almost all the museums.
C．People will not build more new and modern museums.
D．The museums have been changing because old people want them to change.
44．The best title for the passage is ________.
A．Science Museums B．Old Museums
C．Children’s Museums D．Modern Museums
To play tug of war (拔河), you really only need a rope (绳子)—or anything with two ends to tug (拉；拽) on—and at least (至少) two people.
How many people can play tug of war It is decided by (取决于) how long the rope is. In a serious tug of war contest (比赛) there are usually eight players on each team.
People often mark (标记) a point (点) on the ground before playing it. If one team pulls (拉) the other team past the point, they win. Sometimes there are flags (旗帜) along the rope from the center point. As long as (只要) one team pulls the other team to make their flag cross the line (线), they win. Sometimes both teams play tug of war on either side (两侧) of a pool. Both teams try to pull the other team into the water.
People play tug of war in probably (几乎) every country in the world. Today, there are more than 50 countries associated with an international (国际的) tug of war organization (组织)—the Tug of War International Federation (TWIF) (国际拔河协会).
Although (尽管) tug of war was included in the Olympic Games (奥运会) from 1900 to 1920, it isn’t an Olympic sport now. Athletes currently (目前) play tug of war in the World Games (世界运动会). So, yes, even grown-ups (成年人) still play tug of war!
45．How many players are there in a serious tug of war contest
A．2. B．4. C．8. D．16.
46．A team wins if ________.
A．there are eight players on it B．they mark a point on the ground
C．they make the other team’s flag cross the line D．they play it on one side of a pool
47．Which of the following statements is TRUE
A．You can’t play tug of war without a rope.
B．In a serious contest there are at least two players on each team.
C．According to Paragraph 3, we can play tug of war in 3 ways.
D．Tug of war is an Olympic sport now.
Redwoods are the tallest living trees on the planet (星球). They can reach 300 feet (英尺) high or higher, and their trunks (树干) can grow to more than 20 feet wide (宽). Recently, a couple of (两个) naturalists (博物学家) found the tallest tree.
They named the tree “Hyperion” and called in a biologist (生物学家), Steve Sillett, to investigate (调查) their find.
Steve wants to know the exact (确切的) height of this tree without cutting it.
The best way to measure (测量) tree height is to climb to the top and lower (使……降下) a tape (带子) with a weight (重量) straight to the ground.
But the best way is also the hardest. Hyperion’s lowest branches (树枝) are 25 storeys (楼层) up. To get to them, Steve uses a crossbow (弩) to launch (发射) fishing line up and over the tree’s branches.
Then he uses the line to hoist (拉高) his climbing rope (绳子) into the tree. With the rope in place, Steve and his wife walk their way up into the canopy (林冠). After they got about 300 feet in the tree, they had a rest and said, “We still probably are about half an hour to an hour from the top.”
48．Which of the following is NOT true about Hyperion
A．It’s a redwood. B．It is 300 feet high.
C．It is the tallest tree in the world. D．Its lowest branches are 25 storeys up.
49．Steve uses a crossbow to ________.
A．lower a tape B．launch fishing line up
C．hoist his climbing rope into the tree D．walk their way up into the canopy
50．How did Steve measure the tree
A．By cutting it down. B．By measuring the shadow (影子) of it.
C．By using a helicopter (直升机). D．By climbing to the top and lower a tape.
51．What does the passage mainly talk about
A．Redwoods. B．A biologist. C．A couple of naturalists. D．The tallest tree of the world.
Would you like to grow chilies (辣椒) in your garden They need a warm climate (气候). If you plant the seeds outside and the weather is cool, place a glass (玻璃杯) over them. That will protect them from wind and cold and let them enjoy enough sunshine. You can also start the seeds (种子) in your home or a greenhouse (温室).
If you plant chilies inside, fill (装满) an 8 cm pot (花盆) with soil. The pot should have holes (孔；洞) in the bottom (底部) so water can run out.
Drop some seeds in the pot and cover with a thin layer (层；表层) of vermiculite (蛭石). Then cover the top of the pot with a see-through plastic (塑料的) bag.
If the chilies start growing, take off the bag. If the plants (植物) are about 2 cm high, place each one in its own (自己的) 8 cm pot.
If you can see the roots (根) from the bottom of the pot, transplant (移植) each plant into a 12 cm pot.
If the first flowers show (出现), give the plants some fertilizer (肥料). When the weather is warm, put them into big pots and place them outside.
52．A glass will ________ if you plant chilies outside.
a. protect them from wind b. protect them from cold
c. let them get enough light d. let water run out
A．a, b and d B．a, c and d C．a, b and c D．b, c and d
53．If the plants grow to 1.9 cm, you can ________.
A．cover the top of the pot with a see-through plastic bag
B．take off the plastic bag
C．place each one in its own 8 cm pot
D．transplant each plant into a 12 cm pot
54．What does the passage mainly talk about
A．How to protect chilies.
B．How to grow chilies.
C．How to take care of plants.
D．How to keep your greenhouse warm.
When people put sounds together in a special way, they make music. For some people, music is their good friend because there are many good things about it.
Music makes people happy. When we listen to music, our body makes dopamine (多巴胺). It helps us feel great and happy. When you are sad, listening to music can make you happy.
Music helps people remember things better. There are four kinds of brain waves (脑电波) (a, B, 0, and 8) in our brain. Listening to different kinds of music can make a difference to different brain waves. People think that soft (轻柔的) music is good for a waves. And they can make us remember things better.
Music helps keep people healthy. Doctors say music is a kind of medicine in some hospitals. Schools also have classes for students to learn it.
Music teaches people about culture (文化) and history. Different kinds of music have different histories and cultures. For example, yayue was a kind of court (宫廷) music in old China. Jazz (爵士乐) comes from America and has a different sound and feeling.
55．How can music affect (影响) our memory
A．It can make us listen carefully in class. B．It can make us remember things in a special way.
C．It can make our brain have different waves D．It can affect the brain waves that help with memory.
56．What can we know from the passage
A．Music is of no use to doctors. B．The waves are good for our study.
C．Dopamine can make people feel bad. D．Yayue and jazz come from the same country.
57．What is the structure of the passage
A． B． C． D．
58．What is the main idea of the passage
A．Different kinds of music. B．The different brain waves in our brain.
C．Good things about music. D．How music makes people happy.
Most people really love animals. That’s why many children’s books and TV shows have animals as the main characters. Lots of people have pets at home. And both kids and grown﹣ups love visiting zoos and watching animal shows.
A long,long time ago, in 1500 BC, a queen in Egypt created the first zoo. She brought animals from Africa to live there. But animal shows didn’t start until much later, in the 1800s. Sadly, in the early days, people didn’t treat animals very well. Sometimes they didn’t give them enough food, and they even hit them.
Luckily, things have changed a lot. Nowadays,zoos are still fun places to visit, but they also work hard to protect animals and teach people about them. Zoos and animal shows have to follow important rules. They must give animals a clean home, plenty of food and water, and take care of their health.
Some people want to do even more to protect the animals they love. For example, many people don’t want whales to be in shows at Sea World. They think the big whales don’t have enough space in the small pools. Because so many people think this way, Sea World decided to stop all whale shows.
When people work to protect animals and love them at the same time, everyone can be happy ﹣﹣ both animals and people!
59．Which is the similar meaning of the underlined sentence in Paragraph 2
A．People weren’t friendly to animals.
B．People didn’t teach animals to show.
C．People weren’t good at hitting animals.
D．People didn’t know much about animals.
60．According to the passage, which of the following statements is true
A．People do a lot to help animals now.
B．Zoos started much later than animal shows.
C．Both children and adults come to zoos just for fun.
D．Big whales are more interesting than other animals.
61．Why do some people want to stop the whale shows at Sea World
A．Because the rules are not useful to the big whales.
B．Because children like to watch other animal shows.
C．Because the zoos have no enough food for the whales.
D．Because the whales have no enough space to swim in.
62．What is the purpose (目的) of this passage
A．To ask more people to love animals.
B．To make animals have more fun.
C．To ask more people to create zoos.
D．To make animals show more often.
Three kinds of bears live in Alaska, America. They are the polar bear (北极熊), the black bear and the brown bear.
People can also call polar bears white bears because they are white. They usually live on the ice and like to eat seals (海豹). They always work hard to find seals. Polar bears always have a good wash after eating food. Black bears live in the forests. They love to cat many kinds of plants very much. Brown bears usually live in the mountains. Once a year, the brown bears go to the rivers and lakes to find fish to cat. Brown bears also love to cat fruit like strawberries.
Polar bears are very dangerous (危险的) and people don’t live near their homes. People must be far from black bears too. If you meet a black bear in the forest, you must keep quiet first and then you can back away slowly (慢慢后退). Brown bears sometimes come to people for food. You can’t let the brown bears find your food on the floor, so you must put it in your bag and keep it tidy.
63．What does the underlined word “They” in Paragraph 2 refer to (指的是)
A．Fish. B．Polar bears. C．Black bears. D．Brown bears.
64．Where do brown bears usually live
A．On the ice. B．Near the river. C．In the forests. D．In the mountains.
65．What do polar bears and black bears have in common (共同之处)
A．They are very tidy. B．They are dangerous. C．They like eating fruit. D．They like living near people.
66．Why does the writer write the passage
A．To ask people not to see bears. B．To tell people to live in Alaska.
C．To let people know about the bears in Alaska. D．To tell people how to know about Alaska well.
Homemade mooncakes are the latest popular food to hit China. Every year, with mid- autumn festival fast coming, many begin making their own mooncakes, and having a lot of fun in the process.
How to make mooncakes
Xiao Yuan, a customer in a bakery, said, “It’s not difficult. All you have to do is to put the ingredients in utensils (模具) and press it. I think it’s much healthier. I choose what I like to put in them.”
How long to make mooncakes
The whole process takes a little more than an hour. Customers can even make their own nice boxes to put mooncakes and send them to friends.
Why is it popular
Homemade mooncakes are healthy. Besides, the cost is low. It’s only 40 to 50 RMB a pack. Also, many online stores are selling mooncake ingredients and utensils.
They even teach how to make them.
Attention (注意)
●Be strict in the time of baking (烘焙) the mooncakes.
●Mooncakes should be kept in the fridge and eaten within 5- 7 days.
67．What does Xiao Yuan think of making mooncakes
A．Fun. B．Easy. C．Amazing. D．Exciting.
68．Why are homemade mooncakes popular according to the passage
A．Because they are the best gifts to friends.
B．Because people don’t like mooncakes in stores.
C．Because they’re healthy cheap and easy to make.
D．Because they’re more beautiful than those in stores.
69．What can we know from the passage
A．It takes more than one day to make mooncakes at home.
B．Homemade mooncakes are healthy but the cost is too high.
C．Homemade mooncakes are delicious so Xiao Yuan likes them.
D．We must keep homemade mooncakes in the fridge and eat soon.
70．Who will probably like this passage People who are interested in ________.
A．sports B．clothes C．traveling D．food
Being a pilot can be cool (P3)
What kind of training does an Air Force pilot need
来看空军飞行员的“硬核”训练
I have always found Air Force pilots flying in the sky to be very cool, and I admire them for protecting our country. I want to know more about the life of a PLA Air Force pilot.
Yin Shuo, 13, Tianjin
I am a PLA Air Force pilot and now work as a flight instructor (教员) at the Air Force Aviation University.
Wei Fangjie, 26, Shandong
Yin: How did you become a PLA Air Force pilot
Wei: When I was a grade 12 student, I saw a poster (海报) about becoming an Air Force pilot. I decided (决定) to give it a try. I passed some important tests, like the gaokao and medical exams (体检) for pilots. In 2015, I started studying at the Air Force Aviation University. Then, I became an Air Force pilot student.
Yin: What do you need to learn as an Air Force pilot
Wei: Pilots need to not only study in the classroom but also learn difficult aerobatics (飞行特技) like loops (筋斗). When you do a loop, you feel like three people are pressing (按压) down on your body. So we do exercises to make our bodies stronger.
Yin: What does it take to become a pilot
Wei: Quick thinking is important. Once, when I flew above the clouds, I felt like I was turning all the time. But my instruments (机器) showed that it was level (水平的). I made a quick decision to trust (相信) the instruments, so I didn’t get lost.
Yin: If a student wants to become a PLA Air Force pilot, what’s your advice (建议)
Wei: Do your best in school exams. PLA Air Force pilots now need to be great learners. Also, protect your eyes from myopia (近视). Once you get myopia, it is impossible (不可能的) to become a PLA Air Force pilot.
By XIONG JIAN, 21st Century TeensChoose the answer:
71．What did Wei do to study at the Air Force Aviation University
A．He did a part-time job at the university.
B．He made a poster about Air Force pilots.
C．He took and passed some important tests.
D．He first became an Air Force pilot student.
72．How do people feel when they do a loop
A．It is just like studying in a classroom.
B．It is like having a stronger body.
C．It is like falling off a spinning ladder.
D．It is like three people are pressing down on their body.
73．How did Wei show that quick thinking is important
A．By saying it many times. B．By using numbers.
C．By giving an example. D．By using other people’s ideas.
74．According to the passage, what do we know about Air Force pilots
a. They usually don’t have myopia.
b. They need to take tests every day.
c. They don’t need to do well in school.
d. Having a strong body is important.
A．ac B．ad C．bc D．bd
75．Why did the writer write this passage
A．To help readers know more about pilots.
B．To tell readers the importance of staying healthy.
C．To call on more people to care about pilots.
D．To show the life of a well-known pilot.
/ 让学习更有效 新课备课备考 | 英语学科
/ 让学习更有效 新课备课备考 | 英语学科
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参考答案及试题解析
1．C 2．A 3．D 4．C 5．B
【导语】本文主要讲了英文中“Thank you”和“Excuse me”的常见用法，并建议人们使用礼貌用语。
1．细节理解题。根据第一段“American people like to say ‘Thank you’ when others help them or say something kind to them.”可知，当别人帮助他们或对他们说一些友好的话时，美国人喜欢说“谢谢”。由此推测当有人帮你时你应该说谢谢，故选C。
2．细节理解题。根据第一段“American people like to say ‘Thank you’ when others help them or say something kind to them. People of many countries do so, too.”可知，当别人帮助他们或对他们说一些友好的话时，美国人喜欢说“谢谢”，并且许多国家的人也这样做。由此推测“Thank you”在世界上被广泛使用。故选A。
3．细节理解题。根据第三段“‘Excuse me’ is another short sentence they use. When you hear someone say so behind you, you know that somebody wants to walk past you without touching you…You should also do so when you begin to cough or make any noise before others.”可知，当你听到身后有人向你说“Excuse me”时，你知道有人想从你身边走过；当你在别人面前开始咳嗽或发出任何声音时，你也应该说“Excuse me”。故选D。
4．推理判断题。根据第三段“If you want to speak to one of them, say ‘Excuse me’ first, and then begin talking.”可知，打断别人说话是不礼貌的，如果你想和他们中的一个说话，先说“Excuse me”，然后再开始说话。据此推断当你想问路时可以说“Excuse me”。故选C。
5．主旨大意题。阅读文章可知，本文讲了英文中“Thank you”和“Excuse me”的常见用法，这两句话都是礼貌用语，由此推测本文主告诉了我们讲礼貌的方法。故选B。
6．B 7．D 8．A 9．C 10．A
【导语】本文主要讲述了2030年某一天的早上人们起床后的生活场景。
6．细节理解题。根据“You are just waking up in the spring of 2030.”可知，文中所有的事情都发生在2030年。故选B。
7．细节理解题。根据“While you dress, your artificial intelligence (AI) assistant shares your schedule for the day and plays your favorite tunes.”可知，AI助手会分享你当天的日程安排并播放你最喜欢的音乐。故选D。
8．细节理解题。根据“A hot breakfast tailored to your specific nutritional needs (based on chemical analysis from your trips to the ‘smart toilet’) is waiting for you in the kitchen.”可知，人们在上完厕所后，智能厕所会为其提供化学物质的分析结果，早餐就是根据这个结果来制定的，也就是说，早餐是根据人产生的废弃物（粪便）的分析结果来定制的，故选A。
9．细节理解题。根据“On the road, driverless cars and trucks move with mathematical precision, without traffic jams, routine maintenance or road rage. Accident rates are near zero.”可知，未来交通的优点包括没有交通拥堵、没有日常维护、没有路怒和接近于零的事故率，所以A,B,D项都正确，C项不是优点，符合题意。故选C。
10．最佳标题题。通读全文可知，本文主要讲述的是未来某一天的早上人们的生活状况，故选A。
11．C 12．D 13．B 14．D
【导语】本文是一篇说明文，主要讲述运动给女孩带来的诸多益处。
11．细节理解题。根据“Exercise improves (改善) learning...advantage (优势) in classroom.”可知，运动改善学习、记忆力和专注力，这些给女孩课堂优势，a、c、d符合，b是运动其他健康益处，不是课堂优势来源。故选C。
12．细节理解题。根据“Some benefits of sports...later in life.”可知，运动健康益处有保持健康、维持健康体重、预防乳腺癌和骨质疏松，D不是健康益处。故选D。
13．细节理解题。根据“Playing sports can also...get breast cancer (乳腺癌) ” 可知，运动是降低患乳腺癌可能性，不是“不会患”。故选B。
14．最佳标题题。通读全文及根据“The Women’s Sports Foundation discovered sports can bring a lot of benefits (益处) for girls. Here are a few:”可知，全文是在讲女孩运动的益处。故选D。
15．D 16．C 17．D 18．A
【导语】本文主要介绍了地球上的氧气最初从何而来。
15．细节理解题。根据“About 2.4 billion years ago, there was little oxygen in the air, so no animal or plant life could live.”可知，24亿年前空气中几乎没有氧气，所以没有动物或植物能够存活。故选D。
16．细节理解题。根据“one of them called cyanobacteria gave off oxygen”可知，蓝藻能释放氧气。故选C。
17．推理判断题。根据“They noticed that the bacteria stated to make oxygen at the same time as the slowing down of the Earth’s rotation. Slower rotation means longer days. That means the bacteria could get more sunlight for one time.”可推知，细菌最初开始制造氧气是因为白天变长而使它得到了更多的阳光。故选D。
18．推理判断题。本文主要介绍了地球上的氧气最初从何而来，可能出现在报纸的科学版块上。故选A。
19．B 20．D 21．A
【导语】本文针对如何写好短篇小说提供了六点建议。
19．细节理解题。根据“Reading books and doing some research is really important. I get great ideas for characters (角色) from the books I read.”可知，表明读书能获取角色创作的灵感。故选B。
20．细节理解题。根据“Try to put yourself inside your character’s mind (思想) and feelings (感情). A big part (部分) of writing is taking yourself out of your own self (自我) and your own life.”可知，是要代入角色的思想和感情，即像自己是角色一样思考。故选D。
21．最佳标题题。通读原文可知，文章围绕帮助孩子写好故事给出六条建议，核心是写短篇小说的技巧。A选项“写好短篇小说的六条建议”符合题意。故选A。
22．A 23．D 24．B
【导语】本文是一篇说明文。文章介绍了树叶颜色的成因及其随季节变化的原因。
22．细节理解题。根据“Chlorophyll is bright green. It helps leaves use sunlight energy (能量) to make sugars (糖分)”可知，叶绿素帮助树叶利用阳光制造糖分。故选A。
23．细节理解题。根据“Chlorophyll is bright green.”可知，叶绿素是绿色的，故b正确；根据“In green leaves, there is so much chlorophyll. Its green color covers up all of the other colors.”可知，在绿叶中，叶绿素的颜色掩盖了所有其他颜色，故c正确；根据“There are less (更少的) sunlight hitting the tree’s leaves… so the tree starts to make less chlorophyll.”可知，阳光帮助树制造叶绿素，阳光减少，叶绿素合成也减少，故d正确；而根据“Chlorophyll isn’t the only thing that gives leaves color.”可知，叶绿素不是唯一给树叶颜色的东西，故a错误。综上所述，b、c、d三项均正确，故选D。
24．细节理解题。根据“But when summer starts to turn into fall (秋季), the days get shorter (更短的). There are less (更少的) sunlight hitting the tree’s leaves… so the tree starts to make less chlorophyll. Then the leaves become less green, and we can see more of the other colors!”可推断，秋天树叶变黄或变红是因为叶绿素减少，其他颜色的色素显现出来了。故选B。
25．A 26．D 27．D
【导语】本文介绍了如何在不同阶段培养孩子的幽默感。
25．细节理解题。根据“Babies don’t really know humor, but they do know when you’re smiling (微笑) and happy. If you make funny noises (声音；响声) and then smile, your baby can feel your joy (快乐).”可知，说明微笑、自己开心、发出有趣声音然后微笑能让婴儿开心。故选A。
26．细节理解题。根据“Preschoolers (学前儿童)... A preschooler is more likely to find humor in pictures like a car with square (正方形的) wheels (车轮) or a pig wearing sunglasses. Things like a horse saying moo and a pig saying mew are also funny for this age group (组；群).”可知，即学前儿童觉得动物发出其他动物的叫声这类错位、奇特的情况有趣。故选D。
27．细节理解题。根据“School-Age Kids (学龄儿童)... They may find the joy of telling jokes (笑话) and will repeat the same jokes over and over.”可知，学龄儿童觉得讲笑话有趣。故选D。
28．D 29．C 30．A
【导语】本文介绍了一种新型食物——以昆虫为原材料制作的食物。
28．细节理解题。根据第二段中的“The cook said the perfect (完美的) meal for first-timers (初次尝试的人) was a pasta (意大利面) made with mealworms, sweet potatoes and young insects.”可知，对于初次尝试的人来说，最完美的饭菜是用黄粉虫、红薯和幼虫烹制的意大利面。故选D。
29．推理判断题。根据倒数第二段中“Ayari’s young daughter also enjoyed the food: ‘It’s delicious. I like it very much.’”可知，Soheil Ayari认为这种食物的味道很好。这是为了佐证上段最后一句“Anyway, they can be delicious.”故选C。
30．推理判断题。根据最后一段中的“He said, ‘Insects are nutritious. They can help us follow a healthier diet.’”可知，Stefan De Keersmaecker认为昆虫很有营养，它们可以帮助人们遵循健康的饮食。由此可推知，Stefan De Keersmaecker认为昆虫是一种健康的食物。故选A。
31．C 32．B 33．D 34．B
【导语】本文主要介绍了英国常见的几种食物，包括英国传统食物和外国食物。
31．细节理解题。根据文章第一段内容可知，传统的英国食物包含一种肉（牛肉、猪肉或者鸡肉）和两种蔬菜（土豆、豌豆或者胡萝卜）。C项“猪肉、土豆和胡萝卜”符合此标准。故选C。
32．细节理解题。根据第二段中的“A popular dish is “curry” (咖喱), Indian (印度的) food.”可知，咖喱来自印度。故选B。
33．细节理解题。根据倒数第二段中的“In big cities such as (例如) London you can visit Chinatown.”和“Even the street names are written (被书写) in both Chinese and English.”可知，在唐人街街道的名字是中英文对照的。故选D。
34．主旨大意题。本文介绍了英国常见的几种食物，包括英国传统食物和外国食物。B项“英国常见的食物”符合文章主旨。故选B。
35．A 36．A 37．C
【导语】本文是一篇说明文。主要介绍了万圣节用来做南瓜灯的南瓜与食用南瓜的区别，以及它们的食用价值。
35．细节理解题。根据“We cave (雕刻) Halloween pumpkins (南瓜) into jack-o’-lanterns (空心南瓜灯)”可知，万圣节南瓜被雕刻成南瓜灯。故选A。
36．词句猜测题。根据“The uncut (未切开的) Halloween pumpkin is safe to eat”可知，万圣节南瓜不是用来做饭的最好的类型。“it”指代前句中的“The uncut Halloween pumpkin”。故选A。
37．细节理解题。根据“Cooking pumpkins are smaller, sweeter (更甜的), have a thicker (更厚的) rind (外壳), and have fewer fibers (纤维), making them easier to cook with—but not so good for carving.”可知，美味南瓜的特点包括：更小、外壳更厚、纤维更少、不适合雕刻，即a，c和d。故选C。
38．D 39．C 40．B
【导语】本文主要讲述了如何从动物攻击中幸存下来。
38．细节理解题。根据“And so if you miss (错过) the eye, there is a chance that you can cause (引起) them some pain (疼痛) by hitting (撞击) them and striking (击打) them in the eardrum (耳膜).”可知，a项和d项正确。根据倒数第二段中的“Don’t care how big it is, you go for its eyes, its nose, its throat.”可知，b项和c项正确。故选D。
39．细节理解题。根据第三段中的“If they feel a danger to them, they will withdraw.”可知，如果动物感觉到了危险，它就会撤退。故选C。
40．推理判断题。根据最后一段“Now, let’s talk about geese. I’m bigger than the goose...”可知，文章接下来最有可能讨论的是怎样避免鹅的攻击。故选B。
41．A 42．D 43．A 44．D
【导语】本文是一篇说明文。主要讲述了美国和加拿大的博物馆数量在过去25年间的变化以及现代博物馆的特点和发展趋势。
41．细节理解题。根据“In the United States and Canada, there are over 6,000 museums, almost twice as many as there were 25 years ago.”可知，在美国和加拿大，博物馆数量超过6000家，几乎是25年前的两倍。由此可推测，25年前的博物馆数量约为3000家。故选A。
42．细节理解题。根据“In many science museums, the visitors are encouraged to touch, listen, and experiment so as to find scientific rules for themselves.”可知，游客可以在科学博物馆中做实验。故选D。
43．细节理解题。根据“There are no ‘Do Not Touch’ signs in some other museums in the USA.”可知，在美国的一些现代博物馆中看不到“禁止触摸”的标志。故选A。
44．最佳标题题。通读全文可知，文章主要讲述了现代博物馆的变化和特点，包括互动性增强、鼓励参与等。选项D“现代博物馆”最能概括文章主旨，最适合当标题。故选D。
45．D 46．C 47．C
【导语】本文介绍了一项运动项目——拔河比赛的举行条件、规则及社会地位。
45．细节理解题。根据“In a serious tug of war contest (比赛) there are usually eight players on each team.”可知，在一场正规的拔河比赛中每支队伍一般有8位选手，一场比赛有两支队伍，故每场比赛共有（8+8 ）16位选手。故选D。
46．细节理解题。根据“As long as (只要) one team pulls the other team to make their flag cross the line (线), they win.”可知，只要一支队伍把另一支队伍的旗帜拉过线，这支队伍就赢了。故选C。
47．细节理解题。第三段共介绍了三种拔河的玩法，分别是：在地面上标记一个点，被拉过该点的一方输；在绳子上挂旗子，旗子被拉过线的一方输；在水坑两侧玩，被拉进水坑的一方输。故选C。
48．B 49．B 50．D 51．D
【导语】本文主要介绍了世界上最高的树及其测量过程。
48．推理判断题。根据文章最后一句 “After they got about 300 feet in the tree, they had a rest and said...” 可知，其高度超过了300 英尺。故选B。
49．细节理解题。根据倒数第二段中的 “Steve uses a crossbow to launch fishing line up” 可知，史蒂夫用弩将钓鱼线发射到树枝上方并越过树枝。故选B。
50．细节理解题。根据“The best way to measure (测量) tree height is to climb to the top and lower (使……降下) a tape (带子) with a weight (重量) straight to the ground.”可知，测量树高的最佳方法是爬到树顶，然后将带有重物的卷尺垂直放到地面。故选D。
51．主旨大意题。本文主要介绍了世界上最高的树及其测量过程。故选D。
52．C 53．C 54．B
【导语】本文是一篇说明文，主要介绍了如何种植辣椒的过程，包括种植环境、种植步骤以及后期的养护方法。
52．细节理解题。根据文章第一段“If you plant the seeds outside and the weather is cool, place a glass (玻璃杯) over them. That will protect them from wind and cold and let them enjoy enough sunshine.”可知，玻璃杯可以保护辣椒免受风和寒冷，同时还能让它们获得足够的阳光。因此，选项a、b和c都符合原文描述。故选C。
53．推理判断题。根据文章第四段“If the plants (植物) are about 2 cm high, place each one in its own (自己的) 8 cm pot.”可知，当辣椒苗长到大约2厘米高时，应该将每一株分别移植到一个8厘米的花盆中。由此可推知，植株长到1.9厘米时，可以把它们分别置于一个8厘米的花盆里。故选C。
54．主旨大意题。通读全文可知，文章从辣椒种植的环境要求、种子处理、移植过程以及后期养护等方面进行了详细的介绍，因此文章的核心内容是关于如何种植辣椒的。故选B。
55．D 56．B 57．A 58．C
【导语】本文主要讲述了音乐对人的好处，包括使人快乐、帮助记忆、保持健康和教授文化历史。
55．推理判断题。根据第三段“Music helps people remember things better. There are four kinds of brain waves (脑电波) (a, B, 0, and 8) in our brain.”可知，音乐通过影响有助于记忆的脑电波来帮助我们记忆。故选D。
56．推理判断题。根据第三段“And they can make us remember things better.”可知，它们可以帮助我们更好地记住事情，故推测出电波对学习有好处。故选B。
57．篇章结构题。通读全文可知，第一段总述了音乐对人的好处；第二、三、四、五段分别介绍了音乐对人不同的好处。故本文结构为总——分结构。故选A。
58．主旨大意题。本文主要讲述了音乐对人的好处，包括使人快乐、帮助记忆、保持健康和教授文化历史。故而主旨为“音乐的好处”。故选C。
59．A 60．A 61．D 62．A
【导语】本文是一篇说明文，主要介绍了动物园和动物表演的发展历程，早期人们对动物不善，如今情况改善，人们通过制定规则等方式保护动物，呼吁大家爱护动物。
59．细节理解题。根据“Sadly, in the early days, people didn’t treat animals very well. Sometimes they didn’t give them enough food, and they even hit them.”可知，早期人们对动物不好，不给它们足够的食物，甚至打它们。故选A。
60．细节理解题。根据“Luckily, things have changed a lot. Nowadays, zoos are still fun places to visit, but they also work hard to protect animals and teach people about them.”可知，现在人们为保护动物做了很多事。故选A
61．细节理解题。根据“For example, many people don’t want whales to be in shows at Sea World. They think the big whales don’t have enough space in the small pools.”可知，一些人希望停止海洋世界的鲸鱼表演，是因为鲸鱼在小池子里没有足够的空间游泳。故选D。
62．主旨大意题。根据“Most people really love animals.”并通读全文可知，文章讲述了动物园和动物表演的发展，早期人们对动物不好，如今情况改善，人们努力保护动物，目的是呼吁更多人爱护动物。故选A。
63．B 64．D 65．B 66．C
【导语】本文介绍了美国阿拉斯加三种熊（北极熊、黑熊、棕熊）的栖息地、食性及与人类的相处方式。
63．词句猜测题。根据“People can also call polar bears white bears because they are white. They usually live on the ice and like to eat seals (海豹). They always work hard to find seals.”可知，北极熊喜欢吃海豹，它们总是努力寻找海豹。因此They指的是北极熊。故选B。
64．细节理解题。根据“Brown bears usually live in the mountains.”可知，棕熊通常在山里生活。故选D。
65．细节理解题。根据“Polar bears are very dangerous (危险的) and people don’t live near their homes. People must be far from black bears too.”可知，两者均被指明危险需保持距离。故选B。
66．主旨大意题。全文围绕阿拉斯加三种熊的习性、栖息地、食物、和危险性展开，旨在让人们了解阿拉斯加的三种熊。故选C。
67．B 68．C 69．D 70．D
【导语】本文介绍自制月饼在中国的流行趋势，分析其受欢迎原因（健康、低成本、操作简便），并说明制作时长及储存注意事项。
67．细节理解题。根据“It’s not difficult.”可知，制作月饼并不难，所以，选项B“Easy容易的”符合题意。故选B。
68．细节理解题。根据“Homemade mooncakes are healthy. Besides, the cost is low. It’s only 40 to 50 RMB a pack. Also, many online stores are selling mooncake ingredients and utensils.”可知，自制月饼流行的原因有：健康（healthy）、成本低（only 40 to 50 RMB）、网店也在售卖月饼原料和工具（easy to make）。选项C“因为它们健康、便宜而且容易制作”符合题意。故选C。
69．推理判断题。根据“Mooncakes should be kept in the fridge and eaten within 5- 7 days.”可知，自制月饼必须放在冰箱里，并尽快食用。故选D。
70．推理判断题。通读全文，本文围绕“自制月饼”展开，涉及制作方法、优势及储存要点，核心主题为食品制作，所以，选项D“food食物”与主题直接相关。故选D。
71．C 72．D 73．C 74．B 75．A
【导语】本文介绍了成为一名中国人民解放军空军飞行员所需的训练和要求，包括选拔过程、学习内容、必备素质以及对有志成为空军飞行员学生的建议。
71．细节理解题。根据“I passed some important tests, like the gaokao and medical exams (体检) for pilots.”可知，Wei为了能在空军航空大学学习，参加并通过了一些重要的考试。故选C。
72．细节理解题。根据“When you do a loop, you feel like three people are pressing (按压) down on your body.”可知，做筋斗时的感觉就像有三个人按压在身体上。故选D。
73．细节理解题。根据“Once, when I flew above the clouds, I felt like I was turning all the time. But my instruments (机器) showed that it was level (水平的). I made a quick decision to trust (相信) the instruments, so I didn’t get lost.”可知，Wei通过给出一个自己飞行时快速思考并做出正确决定的例子，来表明快速思考的重要性。故选C。
74．细节理解题。根据“Also, protect your eyes from myopia (近视). Once you get myopia, it is impossible (不可能的) to become a PLA Air Force pilot.”可知，空军飞行员通常没有近视。根据“When you do a loop, you feel like three people are pressing ( 按压) down on your body. So we do exercises to make our bodies stronger.”可知，空军飞行员需要一个强壮的身体。故选B。
75．推理判断题。根据文章内容可知，本文通过对话形式详细介绍了成为空军飞行员的过程、所需的学习内容、飞行时的感受以及成为飞行员的建议等，旨在帮助读者了解更多关于飞行员的信息。故选A。
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