湖南长沙卷
2024-2025学年七年级英语下学期核心素养素质调研模拟练习试题
选择题(请用2B铅笔填涂)湖南长沙卷
2024-2025学年七年级英语下学期核心素养期中素质调研模拟试题
（考试时间：100分钟 试卷满分：100分）
注意事项：
1、答题前，请考生先将自己的姓名、准考证号填写清楚，并认真核对条形码上的姓名、准考证号、考室和座位号；
2、必须在答题卡上答题，在草稿纸、试题卷上答题无效；
3、答题时，请考生注意各大题题号后面的答题提示；
4、请勿折叠答题卡，保持字体工整、笔迹清晰、卡面清洁;
5、答题卡上不得使用涂改液、涂改胶和贴纸；
6、本学科试卷中听力材料以中速朗读两遍。
I．听力（共两节，满分20分）
第一节 （共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项回答问题。听每段对话前，你都有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。
1．Where does the woman want to go
A．The Xinhua Bookstore. B．The Beitai Park. C．The Dinghao Supermarket.
【答案】A
【知识点】问路/行程
【原文】W: Excuse me, could you tell me the way to the Xinhua Bookstore
M: Go along this road and turn left at the second crossing. You’ll see it on your left.
2．Where dose Mrs. Smith live
A．Next to the boy’s aunt. B．Next to the girl’s uncle. C．Next to the girl’s aunt.
【答案】C
【知识点】介绍、位置
【原文】M: Do you know Mrs. Smith She has three sons and four daughters.
W: Yes, I know her! She lives next to my aunt.
3．Which floor does Steve live on
A．The first floor. B．The second floor. C．The third floor.
【答案】C
【知识点】位置
【原文】W: Steve, do you live in a townhouse
M: No. I live in an apartment. There are ten floors in the building, and I live on the third floor.
4．What is Sam doing now
A．Cleaning his room. B．Cooking dinner. C．Drawing a picture.
【答案】C
【知识点】介绍
【原文】W: Sam, can you help me wash the vegetables
M: Give me a second. I’m drawing a picture now.
5．What does Steve usually do on Saturday afternoon
A．He goes to the movies. B．He reads books. C．He exercises.
【答案】A
【知识点】介绍
【详解】W:What do you usually do on Saturday, Steve
M: I usually exercise in the morning and go to the movies in the afternoon.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
听下面6段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第六段材料，回答第6、7题。
6．Where does the man go with his family this year
A．To Hainan. B．To Nanjing. C．To Hunan.
7．How long does the man stay there
A．For seven days. B．For eleven days. C．For fourteen days.
【答案】6．A 7．C
【知识点】旅行、时段
【原文】M: Jane, I go to Hainan with my family this year.
W: Really How is your trip
M: It is wonderful.
W: How long do you stay there
M: For only half a month.
听第七段材料，回答第8、9题。
8．What are they talking about
A．Family rules. B．The classmates. C．School rules.
9．What is Lucy’s school’s dining hall like
A．New. B．Big. C．Old.
【答案】8．C 9．A
【知识点】校规、学校设施、判断与评价
【原文】W: Can you eat in class, Tom
M: No, I can’t, Lucy. And I can’t run in the hallway. Can you listen to music in class
W: No, I can’t. And we must eat in the dining hall.
M: Is your dining hall big
W: No, it isn’t. But it is very new.
听第八段材料，回答第10、11题。
10．Where does Mike want to go
A．The park. B．The zoo. C．The school.
11．Where are the koalas from
A．America. B．South Africa. C．Australia.
【答案】10．B 11．C
【知识点】常见动物、意愿和打算、位置
【原文】W: Where do you want to go, Mike
M: Let’s go to the zoo. I like the koalas.
W: Why
M: Because they are interesting.
W: Where are they from
M: They are from Australia.
听第九段材料，回答第12至14题。
12．What is the relationship(关系) between the two speakers
A．Classmates. B．Mother and son. C．Teacher and student.
13．What does the boy have to wear in the school
A．Sports shoes. B．A shirt. C．The school uniform.
14．What CAN’T the boy do
A．Eat in the dinning room.
B．Eat in the classroom.
C．Eat outside.
【答案】12．C 13．C 14．B
【知识点】校规、警告/禁止、劝告/建议
【原文】W: Don’t eat in the classroom, Li Lei.
M: I’m sorry, Ms. Gao.
W: Do you know the rules
M: Well, we should wear the school uniform in the school.
W: That’s right. What else
M: Don’t fight in the school.
W: Right. And don’t eat in the classroom.
M: Do we have to eat in the dinning hall
W: No, you don’t. You can eat outside.
听第十段材料，回答第15至17题。
15．What can Jim do
A．He can draw pictures.
B．He can play ping-pong.
C．He can play chess.
16．What club does Jim want to join
A．An art club. B．A music club. C．A sports club.
17．What sports does Lucy like
A．Basketball. B．Ping-pong. C．Soccer.
【答案】15．A 16．C 17．B
【知识点】社团/俱乐部、喜欢和不喜欢、能够和不能够
【原文】M: Hey, Lucy. What club do you want to join
W: I don’t know. What can you do, Jim
M: I can draw pictures. But I want to join a sports club.
W: What sports do you like
M: I like basketball. It’s interesting. What about you
W: I like ping-pong.
听第十一段材料，回答第18至20题。
18．Where does Jane live
A．In Green City. B．In Great Village. C．In Green Village.
19．How does Jane get there
A．By train. B．By bus. C．By taxi.
20．How long does it take Jane to get there by train
A．Twenty minutes. B．Thirty minutes. C．One hour and a half.
【答案】18．C 19．A 20．B
【知识点】旅行、问路/行程
【原文】M: Oh, where do you live now, Jane
W: I live in a town called Green Village, Bob. I don’t think you know the place.
M: How far is it
W: Oh, about thirty-five kilometers away from here.
M: How do you get there
W: I go there by train.
M: How long does the train take
W: In fact, it usually takes about 30 minutes to get there.
II．阅读（共三节，满分30分）
第一节 （共11小题；每小题2分，满分22分）
阅读下列材料，从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
Sunshine Center
Time Level Class Teacher
Monday All levels Cooking Jessica
Tuesday Middle level and high level Writing Emma
Wednesday All levels Acting Cherry
Thursday All levels Cooking Jessica
21．Cherry is the teacher of the ________ class.
A．cooking B．acting C．writing
22．I am so busy on Monday that I can’t have the cooking class, I can still have it on ________.
A．Tuesday B．Wednesday C．Thursday
23．If you are a beginner, you can have ________ kinds of classes
A．two B．three C．four
【答案】21．B 22．C 23．A
【知识点】时文/广告/布告、应用文、细节理解
【分析】这篇短文是关于阳光中心关于开放的日期；水平；课程及老师的介绍。
21．细节理解。cooking烹饪；acting 表演； writing写；根据文中“Class Acting；Teacher Cherry”可知，Cherry是表演课的老师。故选B。
22．细节理解。根据文中“Time Monday Class Cooking；Time Thursday Class Cooking”可知，在周一和周四都有烹饪课。故选C。
23．细节理解。根据文中“All levels Cooking ；All levels Acting”可知，如果你是初学者，你可以上两种课程：烹饪和表演。故选A。
B
Everyone has a family name. In China, the family name is the first name, but in English countries, the family name is the last name. Do you know how English people get their family names And what do they mean English people usually get their family names in these ways.
Some family names are from the places of their homes. If a man lives on or near a hill, his family name may be (可能是) Hill. In England, people’s names may be Wood or Lake because the wood (树林) or the lake is near their house.
Some family names are from a person’s job. If a person is a cook, his family name may be Cook. Some family names are about people’s characteristics (特点). Family names like Short, Long, and Little are about the build. And names like Black, White and Green are about the skin (皮肤) color.
And many people get their family names from their fathers’ family names. If you hear the name “Jack Benson”, you can know that he is the son of Ben.
24．How many ways can people get their family names
A．3 B．4 C．5
25．What does the underlined word build mean
A．身材 B．建造 C．肤色
26．What can we know about a boy named Michael Jackson
A．He lives near Jackson. B．He is short and little. C．He is the son of Jack.
27．What does the passage talk about
A．Family names. B．Places of homes. C．Jobs.
【答案】24．B 25．A 26．C 27．A
【知识点】文化差异、科普知识、说明文
【导语】本文主要介绍了英国人姓氏的来源。
24．细节理解题。根据“Some family names are from the places of their homes.”，“Some family names are from a person’s job.”，“Some family names are about people’s characteristics (特点).”和“And many people get their family names from their fathers’ family names.”可知，人们获得姓氏有4种方式。故选B。
25．词义猜测题。根据“Family names like Short, Long, and Little are about the build.”可知，像Short, Long和Little这样的姓氏是关于体型的。因此，“build”的含义为“体型，身材”。故选A。
26．推理判断题。根据“If you hear the name ‘Jack Benson’, you can know that he is the son of Ben.”可知，如果你听到“杰克·本森”这个名字，你就知道他是本的儿子；由此推知“Michael Jackson”表示他是杰克的儿子，姓氏为杰克逊。故选C。
27．主旨大意题。根据“English people usually get their family names in these ways.”及全文可知，本文主要介绍了英国人姓氏的来源。故选A。
C
Do you know the two lovely mascots (吉祥物) of the 2022 Olympics. Let’s go know something about them.
Look at this panda! Yes, he is the mascot of the 2022 Beijing Winter Olympics Games. It looks like an astronaut(宇航员). It wears an ice shell(冰壳) and looks fat so we call it “Bing Dwen Dwen”. White is the colour of ice and snow. He likes ice sports and is good at them.
Do you think the red-mascot looks like a lantern(灯笼) Her name is “Shuey Rhon Rhon”. People always make red lanterns in New Year. Red is the colour of hope and good luck, so people think their dreams will come true in the new year. “Shuey Rhon Rhon” can give Olympics players hope in the 2022 Beijing Winter Paralympic Games(残奥会). Many people in different countries like the two mascots very much, and they show their love for them on the Internet.
28．Which mascot is the 2022 Beijing Winter Olympic Games
A．“Fuwa” dolls. B．Bing Dwen Dwen. C．Shuey Rhon Rhon.
29．Why do we choose(选择) Shuey Rhon Rhon to be mascot
A．Because it is beautiful. B．Because red lanterns are lovely.
C．Because we think red lanterns can bring good luck.
30．In the last paragraph, “them” means ________.
A．the two mascots B．different countries C．people
31．What’s the best title(标题) of the passage
A．The Sports in Olympic Games.
B．Two Olympic Mascots Come to Life
C．2022 Beijing Winter Olympic Games.
【答案】28．B 29．C 30．A 31．B
【知识点】国际赛事、记叙文
【导语】本文是一篇记叙文，主要介绍北京冬奥会的吉祥物“冰墩墩”和“雪容融”。
28．细节理解题。根据“Yes, he is the mascot of the 2022 Beijing Winter Olympics Games...It wears an ice shell and looks fat so we call it ‘Bing Dwen Dwen’.”可知，他是2022年北京冬奥会的吉祥物，我们称它为“冰墩墩”。故选B。
29．细节理解题。根据“Red is the colour of hope and good luck, so people think their dreams will come true in the new year.”可知，红色是希望和好运的颜色，因此人们认为他们的梦想将在新的一年实现。故选C。
30．词义猜测题。根据“Many people in different countries like the two mascots very much, and they show their love for them on the Internet.”可知，来自不同国家的人们喜欢这两只吉祥物，他们在网上表达了对这两只吉祥物的喜爱。故选A。
31．最佳标题题。文章第二、三两段分别具体介绍“冰墩墩”和“雪容融”，所以本文主要内容是介绍两只吉祥物。故选B。
第二节 (共4小题；每小题2分，满分8分)
根据短文内容，从短文后面的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有一项是多余项。
Families and schools have some rules. 32 Mary and her cousin Jane are American girls. They are good children in the same school. The two girls think following the rules is very important.
One day Mary gets an idea. 33 She says, “I think the book can help Jane, our brothers, sisters and me to be good children. If he or she doesn’t follow the rules, he or she has to sit at the door for five minutes.”
34 There are some school rules like “Do your homework”, “Don’t be late for school.” There are also some interesting rules in it, such as, “No eating other people’s food” and “Don’t cry.”
35 Their brothers and sisters think it is very interesting and they often do as it says. Their classmates want to read it, too. Their teachers and parents want to publish (出版) it for them.
根据短文内容，从下面选出四个句子填入文中空缺处，使短文内容完整通顺。
A．Both girls like the book very much.
B．The two girls begin writing the book of rules.
C．She wants to make a book of rules.
D．She is good at making all kinds of rules.
E．Some students think they are important and always follow them, but others don’t.
【答案】32．E 33．C 34．B 35．A
【知识点】守则
【导语】本文主要讲玛丽和她的堂姐珍妮制定的一本有关规则的书，并介绍里面有趣的一些规则。
32．根据“Mary and her cousin Jane are American girls. They are good children in the same school.”可知此处提到两个孩子，故选项E“一些学生认为它们很重要并总是遵守它们，但是其他人不是”符合语境，故选E。
33．根据“I think the book can help Jane, our brothers, sisters and me to be good children.”可知此处讲到一本书，故选项C“她想要制作一本关于规则的书”符合语境，故选C。
34．根据“There are also some interesting rules in it”可知此处提到书里的规则，说明书已经开始制作，故选项B“她们开始写有关规则的书”符合语境，故选B。
35．根据“Their brothers and sisters think it is very interesting and they often do as it says.”可知此处提到孩子们对该书的评价，故选项A“两个女孩都很喜欢这本书”符合语境，故选A。
III．语言运用（共三节，满分35分）
第一节 （共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Boys and girls,
Attention, please! Do you know 36 to keep safe in our daily（日常的）life Today I’d like 37 you some ways to keep safe.
1.Always play in a 38 place. A park is a safe place 39 there are no cars or buses in it.
2. 40 the traffic rules, please! Before crossing a road, 41 and look both ways——look left, look right and look left 42 .
3.Never put your head or hands 43 a car, a bus or a train. Many people get 44 or lose their lives by doing so.
4.Don’t 45 a stranger（陌生人）or go with him/her.
That’s all. All the students should obey the rules anytime(任何时候).
36．A．what B．how C．when
37．A．to tell B．telling C．tell
38．A．beautiful B．wonderful C．safe
39．A．because B．but C．so
40．A．Give B．Take C．Obey
41．A．stop B．go C．walk
42．A．across B．again C．around
43．A．in B．away C．out of
44．A．hurting B．to hurt C．hurt
45．A．talk B．talk to C．talk about
【答案】
36．B 37．A 38．C 39．A 40．C 41．A 42．B 43．C 44．C 45．B
【知识点】方法/策略
【分析】我们经常能听到一句话“安全第一”，的确，在我们的日常生活中，保证安全是非常重要的。那你知道怎样保证安全吗？这篇短文给我们提出了一些好的建议。
36．句意：你知道在日常生活中怎样保证安全吗？what 什么；how怎样；when什么时候。根据下句话Today I’d like　　2　　you some ways to keep safe以及文意可知，短文讲述了保证安全的方法，即“怎样保证安全”，故应选B。
37．句意：今天我想告诉你们一些保证安全的方法。to tell动词不定式；telling动名词；tell告诉，动词原形。这句话中使用了句型would like to do sth.想要做某事，故这里填动词不定式，选A。
38．句意：总是在安全的地方玩。beautiful美丽的；wonderful精彩的；safe安全的。根据文意可知，文章讲述的是如何保证安全，并且下句话A park is a safe place　　4　　there are no cars or buses in it.提到“安全的地方”，故这里应选C。
39．句意：公园是一个安全的地方，因为里面没有汽车或公交车。because因为；but但是；so因此，所以。根据句意可知，空后解释公园是安全的地方的原因，故用because引导原因状语从句，选A。
40．句意：请遵守交通规则！Give给；Take带走；Obey遵守。根据空后the traffic rules可知，这里表示“遵守交通规则”，故应选C。
41．句意：在过马路之前，停下来，向两边看—向左看，向右看，然后再向左看。stop停止；go去；walk走路，散步。根据文意和常识可知，过马路前先停下来往两边看，故应选A。
42．句意：在过马路之前，停下来，向两边看—向左看，向右看，然后再向左看。across穿过；again再，又；around围绕，周围。上面已经提到look left“向左看”，所以这里表示“再一次”，故选B。
43．句意：不要把手或者头伸出车外。in 在…里面；away离开，离去；out of到…外面。根据下文Many people get 　　9　　or lose their lives by doing so可知，这里表示一个危险的做法，故应该是“伸出车外”，故选C。
44．句意：许多人因为这样做而受伤或者失去生命。hurting 受伤，现在分词；to hurt动词不定式；hurt伤害。这里get hurt是系表结构，用过去分词hurt作表语，故选C。
45．句意：不要和陌生人说话，或者跟他走。talk谈话；talk to和某人谈话；talk about谈论某事。根据空后a stranger可知，这里表示“与某人谈话”，故应选B。
【点睛】这篇短文讲述的是在我们的日常生活中怎样保证安全。短文主题明确，中心突出，文章第一段即点明文章主旨，接下来从四个方面进行了具体的介绍，层次清晰。文章内容涉及“安全”这一话题，贴近学生们的日常生活，比较容易理解。题型是完形填空，考查学生们在具体语境中运用语言的能力，综合性较强。做题时，应先通读短文，了解大意；然后根据上下文意作答，先易后难，注意空前后的固定搭配，并仔细辨析选项中单词的形式和用法；最后将答案代入原文，再读一遍，检查答案是否正确。例如第2小题，考查非谓语动词，这句话中考查了句型would like to do sth.“想要做某事”，故这里应用动词原形。再如第7小题，考查副词辨析，across穿过；again再，又；around围绕，周围。上面已经提到look left“向左看”，所以这里表示“再一次”，故选B。
第二节 （共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
My name is Linda. I live in Yushancun. It’s a 46 [ kwai t] community. There are many old people 47 (live) here. Many families 48 young children live here, too. They are all kind 49 each other.
There are a lot of tall buildings and small 50 (garden)in our community. My home is in an apartment building. Behind the building, there is a 51 (sport) center. There are many shops and restaurants 52 [kl s] to my home. There is a community 53 ['s v s] center in our area. We can call it 54 help. People all love the community and we have a 55 (color) life here!
【答案】
46．quiet 47．living 48．with 49．to 50．gardens 51．sports 52．close 53．service 54．for 55．colorful
【知识点】其他人
【分析】本文叙述了琳达所住的社区是非常安静的，人们之间都是很友好的，在她家的附近有许多商店和餐馆，在她所住的区域有一个社区服务中心。这里的人们过着多彩的生活。
46．句意：它是一个非常安静的社区。空格后是名词，所以这里用形容词来修饰。根据音标可知答案。故答案为quiet。
47．句意：许多老工人住在这里。因为句子已经有动词are，所以空格处应该用非谓语动词，many people与live之间是主动关系，所以应该用动词的-ing形式。故答案为living。
48．句意：有小孩子的许多家庭也住在这里。因为句子已经有动词live，所以空格处用介词with：带有。故答案为with。
49．句意：他们对彼此都非常的友好。短语be kind to sb对某人友好。故答案为to。
50．句意：在我们社区有许多高楼和小花园。因为small前没有冠词a,garden是可数名词。所以这里的名词就应该用复数形式。故答案为gardens。
51．句意：在楼的后面有一个体育中心。sports指的就是广义上的体育运动；另外sports可以作形容词，如：sports news; sports shoes;sports car;sports center 。sport通常具体到某一项目，例如My favourite sport is football.希望对你有所帮助。故答案为sports。
52．句意：在我家的附近有许多商店和餐馆。短语close to接近。故答案为close。
53．句意：在我们的区域有一个社区服务中心。a community service center一个社区服务中心.故答案为service。
54．句意：我们可以给它打电话求助。短语call sb for help向某人求助。故答案为 for。
55．句意：人们都喜欢社区，我们在这里有一个多彩的生活。color颜色，是名词，这里用形容词修饰名词life，故答案为colorful。
点睛：这种题型失分较多。首先需要从整体上理解文章，这是很关键的。其次，要知道所给词语的意义和词性，一般来讲，所给的词语以名词、动词和形容词为主，有时也给出副词、介词、连词或代词。然后，通过文章内容尽力分析空白处所缺的部分是什么成分，应该用什么样的词性，实际上这里更多地涉及到了句法知识中的句子成分和简单句的基本句型等语法知识。比如说名词一般用作主语、宾语或表语；动词一般置于主语之后用作谓语；形容词一般用作定语、表语或宾语补足语；副词一般修饰谓语动作，用作状语；介词最大的特征是置于名词或代词之前，构成介词短语；连词一般用来引导一个从句。最后，把干扰选项排除掉，并且把答案都填进空白处检查一遍文章。
第三节 （共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
阅读下面的短文，回答问题。
Dear Henry,
I’m glad to know you are coming to my house next Sunday. You will walk and take a bus to my house. Here is a map, and it can help you find where my house is. Go out of the train station, and go down West Street to the north. Don’t turn left at the crossing, and just walk straight on. You can see a bus stop near a movie theatre on your left. Take the No. 2 bus there and get off at the fifth stop. Then you are on Garden Street. Go down the street and walk until you see a park. Walk across the park and you can find a bank on your right. My house is opposite the bank. I will meet you at the gate of my house. See you then.
Your friend,
Tom
阅读文章，用完整句子回答问题：
56．When is Henry coming to Tom’s house
57．What can Henry see near a movie theatre
58．How will Henry go to Tom’s house
59．Which bus should Henry take
60．Where will Tom meet Henry
【答案】
56．Next Sunday. 57．A bus stop. 58．He will walk and take a bus to Tom’s house. 59．The No. 2 bus. 60．At the gate of his house.
【知识点】交通方式、应用文
【导语】本文是Tom写给Henry的信，信中知道Henry要来Tom家，Tom在信中告诉他到他家应该怎么走。
56．根据“I’m glad to know you are coming to my house next Sunday.”可知，Henry下周日要来Tom家。故填Next Sunday.
57．根据“You can see a bus stop near a movie theatre on your left. ”可知Henry在电影院附近能看到公共汽车站。故填A bus stop.
58．根据“You will walk and take a bus to my house.”可知，Henry将会步行，然后乘公共汽车到Tom家。故填He will walk and take a bus to Tom’s house.
59．根据“Take the No. 2 bus there and get off at the fifth stop. ”可知，Henry应该乘坐2路公交车。故填The No. 2 bus.
60．根据“I will meet you at the gate of my house.”可知，Tom将在他家大门口与Henry会面，故填At the gate of his house.
IV．写作（满分15分）
61．这学期，你们班来了一位名叫 Steve的新同学，并且和你成了好朋友，请你根据以下提示介绍一下他。
基本信息 父亲是美国人，母亲是中国人，会说英语和中文。
兴趣爱好 喜欢踢足球，想加入学校的足球俱乐部，喜欢的动物是树袋熊。
上学方式 家离学校有点远，从家到学校大约5千米。乘公交车上学，每天花20分钟到校。
正在做的事 现在是周一早上9点钟，正下着雨。他正和同学们一起上数学课。
要求：(1)文章必须包括表中所有信息，可适当增加细节，不要逐条翻译。
(2)文章的开头已经给出(不计入总词数)，你只需接着写。
(3)词数在80左右。
I have a new friend this term. _________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
【答案】
My new friend
I have a new friend this term. His name is Steve. His mother is Chinese, but his father comes from America, so Steve can speak English and Chinese.
Playing football is his favorite sport, so he wants to join the football club. He likes koalas best. He thinks they are very cute. He takes a bus to school every day, because his home is far from the school. It is about five kilometers from his home to the school. It takes him about twenty minutes to get to school every day. It is Monday today. It’s nine o’clock in the morning now. It’s raining. Look! He’s having a math class with his classmates.
Do you want to make friends with him
【知识点】个人信息、家庭信息、朋友、爱好、交通方式
【详解】
1. 题干解读：这篇作文要求考生根据表格提示的内容，介绍自己的新朋友Steve的相关情况，属于给材料作文。
2. 写作指导：审题可知，这篇短文应以第三人称和一般现在时为主，以第一人称和现在进行时为辅进行叙述。写作时承接开头，要写出新朋友Steve的基本信息、兴趣爱好、上学方式和正在做的事情。行文注意主谓一致，保证无语法和单词拼写错误。湖南长沙卷
2024-2025学年七年级英语下学期核心素养期中素质调研模拟试题
（考试时间：100分钟 试卷满分：100分）
注意事项：
1、答题前，请考生先将自己的姓名、准考证号填写清楚，并认真核对条形码上的姓名、准考证号、考室和座位号；
2、必须在答题卡上答题，在草稿纸、试题卷上答题无效；
3、答题时，请考生注意各大题题号后面的答题提示；
4、请勿折叠答题卡，保持字体工整、笔迹清晰、卡面清洁;
5、答题卡上不得使用涂改液、涂改胶和贴纸；
6、本学科试卷中听力材料以中速朗读两遍。
I．听力（共两节，满分20分）
第一节 （共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项回答问题。听每段对话前，你都有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。
1．Where does the woman want to go
A．The Xinhua Bookstore. B．The Beitai Park. C．The Dinghao Supermarket.
2．Where dose Mrs. Smith live
A．Next to the boy’s aunt. B．Next to the girl’s uncle. C．Next to the girl’s aunt.
3．Which floor does Steve live on
A．The first floor. B．The second floor. C．The third floor.
4．What is Sam doing now
A．Cleaning his room. B．Cooking dinner. C．Drawing a picture.
5．What does Steve usually do on Saturday afternoon
A．He goes to the movies. B．He reads books. C．He exercises.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
听下面6段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第六段材料，回答第6、7题。
6．Where does the man go with his family this year
A．To Hainan. B．To Nanjing. C．To Hunan.
7．How long does the man stay there
A．For seven days. B．For eleven days. C．For fourteen days.
听第七段材料，回答第8、9题。
8．What are they talking about
A．Family rules. B．The classmates. C．School rules.
9．What is Lucy’s school’s dining hall like
A．New. B．Big. C．Old.
听第八段材料，回答第10、11题。
10．Where does Mike want to go
A．The park. B．The zoo. C．The school.
11．Where are the koalas from
A．America. B．South Africa. C．Australia.
听第九段材料，回答第12至14题。
12．What is the relationship(关系) between the two speakers
A．Classmates. B．Mother and son. C．Teacher and student.
13．What does the boy have to wear in the school
A．Sports shoes. B．A shirt. C．The school uniform.
14．What CAN’T the boy do
A．Eat in the dinning room.
B．Eat in the classroom.
C．Eat outside.
听第十段材料，回答第15至17题。
15．What can Jim do
A．He can draw pictures.
B．He can play ping-pong.
C．He can play chess.
16．What club does Jim want to join
A．An art club. B．A music club. C．A sports club.
17．What sports does Lucy like
A．Basketball. B．Ping-pong. C．Soccer.
听第十一段材料，回答第18至20题。
18．Where does Jane live
A．In Green City. B．In Great Village. C．In Green Village.
19．How does Jane get there
A．By train. B．By bus. C．By taxi.
20．How long does it take Jane to get there by train
A．Twenty minutes. B．Thirty minutes. C．One hour and a half.
II．阅读（共三节，满分30分）
第一节 （共11小题；每小题2分，满分22分）
阅读下列材料，从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
Sunshine Center
Time Level Class Teacher
Monday All levels Cooking Jessica
Tuesday Middle level and high level Writing Emma
Wednesday All levels Acting Cherry
Thursday All levels Cooking Jessica
21．Cherry is the teacher of the ________ class.
A．cooking B．acting C．writing
22．I am so busy on Monday that I can’t have the cooking class, I can still have it on ________.
A．Tuesday B．Wednesday C．Thursday
23．If you are a beginner, you can have ________ kinds of classes
A．two B．three C．four
B
Everyone has a family name. In China, the family name is the first name, but in English countries, the family name is the last name. Do you know how English people get their family names And what do they mean English people usually get their family names in these ways.
Some family names are from the places of their homes. If a man lives on or near a hill, his family name may be (可能是) Hill. In England, people’s names may be Wood or Lake because the wood (树林) or the lake is near their house.
Some family names are from a person’s job. If a person is a cook, his family name may be Cook. Some family names are about people’s characteristics (特点). Family names like Short, Long, and Little are about the build. And names like Black, White and Green are about the skin (皮肤) color.
And many people get their family names from their fathers’ family names. If you hear the name “Jack Benson”, you can know that he is the son of Ben.
24．How many ways can people get their family names
A．3 B．4 C．5
25．What does the underlined word build mean
A．身材 B．建造 C．肤色
26．What can we know about a boy named Michael Jackson
A．He lives near Jackson. B．He is short and little. C．He is the son of Jack.
27．What does the passage talk about
A．Family names. B．Places of homes. C．Jobs.
C
Do you know the two lovely mascots (吉祥物) of the 2022 Olympics. Let’s go know something about them.
Look at this panda! Yes, he is the mascot of the 2022 Beijing Winter Olympics Games. It looks like an astronaut(宇航员). It wears an ice shell(冰壳) and looks fat so we call it “Bing Dwen Dwen”. White is the colour of ice and snow. He likes ice sports and is good at them.
Do you think the red-mascot looks like a lantern(灯笼) Her name is “Shuey Rhon Rhon”. People always make red lanterns in New Year. Red is the colour of hope and good luck, so people think their dreams will come true in the new year. “Shuey Rhon Rhon” can give Olympics players hope in the 2022 Beijing Winter Paralympic Games(残奥会). Many people in different countries like the two mascots very much, and they show their love for them on the Internet.
28．Which mascot is the 2022 Beijing Winter Olympic Games
A．“Fuwa” dolls. B．Bing Dwen Dwen. C．Shuey Rhon Rhon.
29．Why do we choose(选择) Shuey Rhon Rhon to be mascot
A．Because it is beautiful. B．Because red lanterns are lovely.
C．Because we think red lanterns can bring good luck.
30．In the last paragraph, “them” means ________.
A．the two mascots B．different countries C．people
31．What’s the best title(标题) of the passage
A．The Sports in Olympic Games.
B．Two Olympic Mascots Come to Life
C．2022 Beijing Winter Olympic Games.
第二节 (共4小题；每小题2分，满分8分)
根据短文内容，从短文后面的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有一项是多余项。
Families and schools have some rules. 32 Mary and her cousin Jane are American girls. They are good children in the same school. The two girls think following the rules is very important.
One day Mary gets an idea. 33 She says, “I think the book can help Jane, our brothers, sisters and me to be good children. If he or she doesn’t follow the rules, he or she has to sit at the door for five minutes.”
34 There are some school rules like “Do your homework”, “Don’t be late for school.” There are also some interesting rules in it, such as, “No eating other people’s food” and “Don’t cry.”
35 Their brothers and sisters think it is very interesting and they often do as it says. Their classmates want to read it, too. Their teachers and parents want to publish (出版) it for them.
根据短文内容，从下面选出四个句子填入文中空缺处，使短文内容完整通顺。
A．Both girls like the book very much.
B．The two girls begin writing the book of rules.
C．She wants to make a book of rules.
D．She is good at making all kinds of rules.
E．Some students think they are important and always follow them, but others don’t.
III．语言运用（共三节，满分35分）
第一节 （共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Boys and girls,
Attention, please! Do you know 36 to keep safe in our daily（日常的）life Today I’d like 37 you some ways to keep safe.
1.Always play in a 38 place. A park is a safe place 39 there are no cars or buses in it.
2. 40 the traffic rules, please! Before crossing a road, 41 and look both ways——look left, look right and look left 42 .
3.Never put your head or hands 43 a car, a bus or a train. Many people get 44 or lose their lives by doing so.
4.Don’t 45 a stranger（陌生人）or go with him/her.
That’s all. All the students should obey the rules anytime(任何时候).
36．A．what B．how C．when
37．A．to tell B．telling C．tell
38．A．beautiful B．wonderful C．safe
39．A．because B．but C．so
40．A．Give B．Take C．Obey
41．A．stop B．go C．walk
42．A．across B．again C．around
43．A．in B．away C．out of
44．A．hurting B．to hurt C．hurt
45．A．talk B．talk to C．talk about
第二节 （共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
My name is Linda. I live in Yushancun. It’s a 46 [ kwai t] community. There are many old people 47 (live) here. Many families 48 young children live here, too. They are all kind 49 each other.
There are a lot of tall buildings and small 50 (garden)in our community. My home is in an apartment building. Behind the building, there is a 51 (sport) center. There are many shops and restaurants 52 [kl s] to my home. There is a community 53 ['s v s] center in our area. We can call it 54 help. People all love the community and we have a 55 (color) life here!
第三节 （共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
阅读下面的短文，回答问题。
Dear Henry,
I’m glad to know you are coming to my house next Sunday. You will walk and take a bus to my house. Here is a map, and it can help you find where my house is. Go out of the train station, and go down West Street to the north. Don’t turn left at the crossing, and just walk straight on. You can see a bus stop near a movie theatre on your left. Take the No. 2 bus there and get off at the fifth stop. Then you are on Garden Street. Go down the street and walk until you see a park. Walk across the park and you can find a bank on your right. My house is opposite the bank. I will meet you at the gate of my house. See you then.
Your friend,
Tom
阅读文章，用完整句子回答问题：
56．When is Henry coming to Tom’s house
57．What can Henry see near a movie theatre
58．How will Henry go to Tom’s house
59．Which bus should Henry take
60．Where will Tom meet Henry
IV．写作（满分15分）
61．这学期，你们班来了一位名叫 Steve的新同学，并且和你成了好朋友，请你根据以下提示介绍一下他。
基本信息 父亲是美国人，母亲是中国人，会说英语和中文。
兴趣爱好 喜欢踢足球，想加入学校的足球俱乐部，喜欢的动物是树袋熊。
上学方式 家离学校有点远，从家到学校大约5千米。乘公交车上学，每天花20分钟到校。
正在做的事 现在是周一早上9点钟，正下着雨。他正和同学们一起上数学课。
要求：(1)文章必须包括表中所有信息，可适当增加细节，不要逐条翻译。
(2)文章的开头已经给出(不计入总词数)，你只需接着写。
(3)词数在80左右。
I have a new friend this term. ______________________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________湖南长沙卷
2024-2025学年七年级英语下学期核心素养期中素质调研模拟试题
（考试时间：100分钟 试卷满分：100分）
注意事项：
1、答题前，请考生先将自己的姓名、准考证号填写清楚，并认真核对条形码上的姓名、准考证号、考室和座位号；
2、必须在答题卡上答题，在草稿纸、试题卷上答题无效；
3、答题时，请考生注意各大题题号后面的答题提示；
4、请勿折叠答题卡，保持字体工整、笔迹清晰、卡面清洁;
5、答题卡上不得使用涂改液、涂改胶和贴纸；
6、本学科试卷中听力材料以中速朗读两遍。
I．听力（共两节，满分20分）
第一节 （共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项回答问题。听每段对话前，你都有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。
1．Where does the woman want to go
A．The Xinhua Bookstore. B．The Beitai Park. C．The Dinghao Supermarket.
2．Where dose Mrs. Smith live
A．Next to the boy’s aunt. B．Next to the girl’s uncle. C．Next to the girl’s aunt.
3．Which floor does Steve live on
A．The first floor. B．The second floor. C．The third floor.
4．What is Sam doing now
A．Cleaning his room. B．Cooking dinner. C．Drawing a picture.
5．What does Steve usually do on Saturday afternoon
A．He goes to the movies. B．He reads books. C．He exercises.
第二节（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
听下面6段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题5秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出5秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第六段材料，回答第6、7题。
6．Where does the man go with his family this year
A．To Hainan. B．To Nanjing. C．To Hunan.
7．How long does the man stay there
A．For seven days. B．For eleven days. C．For fourteen days.
听第七段材料，回答第8、9题。
8．What are they talking about
A．Family rules. B．The classmates. C．School rules.
9．What is Lucy’s school’s dining hall like
A．New. B．Big. C．Old.
听第八段材料，回答第10、11题。
10．Where does Mike want to go
A．The park. B．The zoo. C．The school.
11．Where are the koalas from
A．America. B．South Africa. C．Australia.
听第九段材料，回答第12至14题。
12．What is the relationship(关系) between the two speakers
A．Classmates. B．Mother and son. C．Teacher and student.
13．What does the boy have to wear in the school
A．Sports shoes. B．A shirt. C．The school uniform.
14．What CAN’T the boy do
A．Eat in the dinning room.
B．Eat in the classroom.
C．Eat outside.
听第十段材料，回答第15至17题。
15．What can Jim do
A．He can draw pictures.
B．He can play ping-pong.
C．He can play chess.
16．What club does Jim want to join
A．An art club. B．A music club. C．A sports club.
17．What sports does Lucy like
A．Basketball. B．Ping-pong. C．Soccer.
听第十一段材料，回答第18至20题。
18．Where does Jane live
A．In Green City. B．In Great Village. C．In Green Village.
19．How does Jane get there
A．By train. B．By bus. C．By taxi.
20．How long does it take Jane to get there by train
A．Twenty minutes. B．Thirty minutes. C．One hour and a half.
II．阅读（共三节，满分30分）
第一节 （共11小题；每小题2分，满分22分）
阅读下列材料，从每题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出最佳选项。
A
Sunshine Center
Time Level Class Teacher
Monday All levels Cooking Jessica
Tuesday Middle level and high level Writing Emma
Wednesday All levels Acting Cherry
Thursday All levels Cooking Jessica
21．Cherry is the teacher of the ________ class.
A．cooking B．acting C．writing
22．I am so busy on Monday that I can’t have the cooking class, I can still have it on ________.
A．Tuesday B．Wednesday C．Thursday
23．If you are a beginner, you can have ________ kinds of classes
A．two B．three C．four
B
Everyone has a family name. In China, the family name is the first name, but in English countries, the family name is the last name. Do you know how English people get their family names And what do they mean English people usually get their family names in these ways.
Some family names are from the places of their homes. If a man lives on or near a hill, his family name may be (可能是) Hill. In England, people’s names may be Wood or Lake because the wood (树林) or the lake is near their house.
Some family names are from a person’s job. If a person is a cook, his family name may be Cook. Some family names are about people’s characteristics (特点). Family names like Short, Long, and Little are about the build. And names like Black, White and Green are about the skin (皮肤) color.
And many people get their family names from their fathers’ family names. If you hear the name “Jack Benson”, you can know that he is the son of Ben.
24．How many ways can people get their family names
A．3 B．4 C．5
25．What does the underlined word build mean
A．身材 B．建造 C．肤色
26．What can we know about a boy named Michael Jackson
A．He lives near Jackson. B．He is short and little. C．He is the son of Jack.
27．What does the passage talk about
A．Family names. B．Places of homes. C．Jobs.
C
Do you know the two lovely mascots (吉祥物) of the 2022 Olympics. Let’s go know something about them.
Look at this panda! Yes, he is the mascot of the 2022 Beijing Winter Olympics Games. It looks like an astronaut(宇航员). It wears an ice shell(冰壳) and looks fat so we call it “Bing Dwen Dwen”. White is the colour of ice and snow. He likes ice sports and is good at them.
Do you think the red-mascot looks like a lantern(灯笼) Her name is “Shuey Rhon Rhon”. People always make red lanterns in New Year. Red is the colour of hope and good luck, so people think their dreams will come true in the new year. “Shuey Rhon Rhon” can give Olympics players hope in the 2022 Beijing Winter Paralympic Games(残奥会). Many people in different countries like the two mascots very much, and they show their love for them on the Internet.
28．Which mascot is the 2022 Beijing Winter Olympic Games
A．“Fuwa” dolls. B．Bing Dwen Dwen. C．Shuey Rhon Rhon.
29．Why do we choose(选择) Shuey Rhon Rhon to be mascot
A．Because it is beautiful. B．Because red lanterns are lovely.
C．Because we think red lanterns can bring good luck.
30．In the last paragraph, “them” means ________.
A．the two mascots B．different countries C．people
31．What’s the best title(标题) of the passage
A．The Sports in Olympic Games.
B．Two Olympic Mascots Come to Life
C．2022 Beijing Winter Olympic Games.
第二节 (共4小题；每小题2分，满分8分)
根据短文内容，从短文后面的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有一项是多余项。
Families and schools have some rules. 32 Mary and her cousin Jane are American girls. They are good children in the same school. The two girls think following the rules is very important.
One day Mary gets an idea. 33 She says, “I think the book can help Jane, our brothers, sisters and me to be good children. If he or she doesn’t follow the rules, he or she has to sit at the door for five minutes.”
34 There are some school rules like “Do your homework”, “Don’t be late for school.” There are also some interesting rules in it, such as, “No eating other people’s food” and “Don’t cry.”
35 Their brothers and sisters think it is very interesting and they often do as it says. Their classmates want to read it, too. Their teachers and parents want to publish (出版) it for them.
根据短文内容，从下面选出四个句子填入文中空缺处，使短文内容完整通顺。
A．Both girls like the book very much.
B．The two girls begin writing the book of rules.
C．She wants to make a book of rules.
D．She is good at making all kinds of rules.
E．Some students think they are important and always follow them, but others don’t.
III．语言运用（共三节，满分35分）
第一节 （共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Boys and girls,
Attention, please! Do you know 36 to keep safe in our daily（日常的）life Today I’d like 37 you some ways to keep safe.
1.Always play in a 38 place. A park is a safe place 39 there are no cars or buses in it.
2. 40 the traffic rules, please! Before crossing a road, 41 and look both ways——look left, look right and look left 42 .
3.Never put your head or hands 43 a car, a bus or a train. Many people get 44 or lose their lives by doing so.
4.Don’t 45 a stranger（陌生人）or go with him/her.
That’s all. All the students should obey the rules anytime(任何时候).
36．A．what B．how C．when
37．A．to tell B．telling C．tell
38．A．beautiful B．wonderful C．safe
39．A．because B．but C．so
40．A．Give B．Take C．Obey
41．A．stop B．go C．walk
42．A．across B．again C．around
43．A．in B．away C．out of
44．A．hurting B．to hurt C．hurt
45．A．talk B．talk to C．talk about
第二节 （共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
My name is Linda. I live in Yushancun. It’s a 46 [ kwai t] community. There are many old people 47 (live) here. Many families 48 young children live here, too. They are all kind 49 each other.
There are a lot of tall buildings and small 50 (garden)in our community. My home is in an apartment building. Behind the building, there is a 51 (sport) center. There are many shops and restaurants 52 [kl s] to my home. There is a community 53 ['s v s] center in our area. We can call it 54 help. People all love the community and we have a 55 (color) life here!
第三节 （共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
阅读下面的短文，回答问题。
Dear Henry,
I’m glad to know you are coming to my house next Sunday. You will walk and take a bus to my house. Here is a map, and it can help you find where my house is. Go out of the train station, and go down West Street to the north. Don’t turn left at the crossing, and just walk straight on. You can see a bus stop near a movie theatre on your left. Take the No. 2 bus there and get off at the fifth stop. Then you are on Garden Street. Go down the street and walk until you see a park. Walk across the park and you can find a bank on your right. My house is opposite the bank. I will meet you at the gate of my house. See you then.
Your friend,
Tom
阅读文章，用完整句子回答问题：
56．When is Henry coming to Tom’s house
57．What can Henry see near a movie theatre
58．How will Henry go to Tom’s house
59．Which bus should Henry take
60．Where will Tom meet Henry
IV．写作（满分15分）
61．这学期，你们班来了一位名叫 Steve的新同学，并且和你成了好朋友，请你根据以下提示介绍一下他。
基本信息 父亲是美国人，母亲是中国人，会说英语和中文。
兴趣爱好 喜欢踢足球，想加入学校的足球俱乐部，喜欢的动物是树袋熊。
上学方式 家离学校有点远，从家到学校大约5千米。乘公交车上学，每天花20分钟到校。
正在做的事 现在是周一早上9点钟，正下着雨。他正和同学们一起上数学课。
要求：(1)文章必须包括表中所有信息，可适当增加细节，不要逐条翻译。
(2)文章的开头已经给出(不计入总词数)，你只需接着写。
(3)词数在80左右。
I have a new friend this term. _________________________________________________
_________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________

郑重声明：本文版权归原作者所有，转载文章仅为传播更多信息之目的，如作者信息标记有误，请第一时间联系我们修改或删除，多谢。