八年级期中学业质量调研
英语试题
本试卷共9页，满分150分。考试用时120分钟。
注意事项：
1.答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、座号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。
2.回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。
如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。回答非选择题时，用0.5mm黑色签字笔将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷上无效。
第一部分 听力（共四节，满分30分）
第一节 听录音，从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
1. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
A. We are both tall and thin. B. The food tasted delicious. C. Leo hardly ever watches TV.
2. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
A. I didn’t really care about it. B. I can’t stand soap operas. C. I don’t know what happens.
3. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
A. Is Tom smarter than Sam？ B. Does Bill have good habits C. Did you go out with anyone
4. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
A. He couldn’t stop laughing. B. Wasn’t she more creative C. Drinking milk is good for us.
5. 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
A. Who’s the best performer？ B. How do you like sitcoms C. What’s your favorite fruit
第二节 在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
6. How often does Jack drink coffee？【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
A. Never. B. A few times a week. C. Almost every day.
7. What does Linda Smith do？【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
A. A singer. B. A music teacher. C. A magician.
8. Who went to the museum with Bob？【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
A. His brother. B. His friend. C. No one.
9. Where did Alan go 【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
A. To the park. B. To the bank. C. To the theater.
10. What is Paul like？【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
A. Shy. B. Serious. C. Outgoing.
第三节 在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
11. What kind of TV shows does Bill like？
A. Talk shows. B. News. C. Sitcoms.
12. What time does the show start every Saturday？
A. At 9:15 a.m. B. At 9:45 p.m. C. At 9:15 p.m.
13. Why does Amy want to go to the supermarket？
A. To buy some fruit. B. To take a walk. C. To get something free.
14 Where is the supermarket？
A. In the City Park. B. Next to the City Park. C. In front of the City Park.
15. How far is the supermarket？
A. It’s a ten-minute walk. B. It’s ten kilometers away. C. It’s a ten-minute ride.
第四节 在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
【此处可播放相关音频，请去附件查看】
16 When did the eighth-grade students have the football games？
A. Last Tuesday. B. Last Thursday. C. Last Friday.
17. Which class got the second place in the final football games？
A. Class l. B. Class 2. C. Class 3.
18. What does the speaker think of Class 4’s performance？
A. Great. B. Needs work. C. Not bad.
19 Who was the winner in the girls’ 200-meter race this year？
A. Kate. B. Lily. C. Julia.
20. How many parts does the sports news have？
A. Two. B. Five. C. Six.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节 阅读理解 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分）
A
When 10-year-old Grace, from Edinburgh, was unable to find her favorite haggis and black pepper crisps (羊杂黑胡椒薯片) in the shops, she decided to do something. She wrote a letter to the manager of Taylors Snacks, James Taylor, to ask if the company could bring back the popular haggis and black pepper crisps.
Last year, Taylors Snacks made the flavor (口味) available only during winter months. Grace felt disappointed about that. In the letter, Grace said that she and her family all loved the crisps, and added, “I really hope it could become available all year round. If you can, thanks. If not, I will be sad.”
The letter worked, with Taylors Snacks promising to have the crisps on sale all year round. What was more, Grace was gifted a collection of haggis and black pepper crisps for a year, and a ticket for a tour around the Taylors factory.
Grace’s mother Becky said, “This experience (经历) helps Grace see the importance of communicating. It really can make a big difference to a young child’s life.”
Now, Grace is looking forward to visiting the factory and learning how her favorite snacks are made.
21. How did Grace let Taylors Snacks know her wish？
A. By making a call. B. By sending an email.
C. By leaving a message. D. By writing a letter.
22. What does the underlined word “disappointed” mean？
A. Angry. B. Excited. C. Sad. D. Relaxed.
23. What did Taylors Snacks promise？
A. To sell crisps all year round. B. To send free crisps to all customers.
C. To make more flavors instead. D. To sell crisps only on some special days.
24. What does Grace expect to do now？
A. To get more free crisps. B. To say thanks to James Taylor in person.
C. To learn to make crisps by herself. D. To take a tour around the Taylors factory.
25. What does the text tell us？
A. Grace’s mother doesn’t like crisps at all.
B. Grace’s mother thinks the experience is educational.
C. Grace doesn’t mind the promise of Taylors Snacks.
D. Grace was sure that she could receive crisps all the time.
B
Fun & Learn Magazine November 6th hello@funandlearn.com It’s your time！ We love hearing from you! It’s very easy-just write something about your colorful life!
Charlotte： I made the spinning quiz (旋转问答) game from the Christmas magazine. I really enjoyed playing it with my family. George: After attending a 7-day musical theater camp, I enjoyed my time reading the news on the train back.
Samyong: I made a bird bath behind my house for birds. I could see all kinds of birds visiting here. Clemmie: I loved making my New Year dragon. It was fun to learn about how people in China celebrate.
Eliza and Sienna: We are friends from the same school. We sell handmade bread to get more money to help Cool Earth, a group work on stopping cutting down trees. We even have a young helper, Arthur.
26. What did Charlotte make
A. A kind of game. B. A Christmas magazine.
C. Some handmade bread. D. A New Year dragon.
27. How long was George in the musical theater camp
A. For a day. B. For a week. C. For a month. D. For a year.
28. Who is a bird-lover
A. George. B. Clemmie. C. Samyong. D. Arthur.
29. Why did Eliza and Sienna sell handmade bread
A. To do it for fun. B. To celebrate the new year.
C. To help save trees. D. To make more new friends.
30. What can we learn from the text
A. The birds didn’t seem to like the bird bath.
B. George went back from the camp by air.
C. Eliza and Sienna study in different schools.
D. The name of the magazine is Fun & Learn.
C
Travel Guide
On July 27, 2024, Beijing time, the opening ceremony (开幕式) of the 33rd Summer Olympic Games was held in Paris, France. Paris has a history of over 2,000 years. It is a beautiful and interesting city with many famous places and delicious food.
The Louvre Museum (卢浮宫)
The Louvre Museum is one of the biggest and most popular art museums in the world. Inside, there are more than 380,000 works like the Mona Lisa and Venus de Milo. In 2024, the museum had a special show for the Olympics from April 14 to September 16.
The Arc de Triomphe (凯旋门)
People started building the Arc de Triomphe in 1806. After 30 years, it was finished. The building tells stories of wars. Now, visitors can climb to the top of it to enjoy the beauty of Paris.
Bread
French bread is very important in French food culture. Some of it is hard outside and soft inside. At the Olympic Village, players could even learn how to make their own bread.
Cheese
It’s a good try to eat the French cheese. France has a long history of cheese-making, with hundreds of different types of cheese produced (生产) across the country. Each of them has its own special taste. You can eat them with salad, bread, or on their own.
31. What could visitors do at the Louvre Museum on April 26, 2024？
A. Learn to make bread. B. See a special art show.
C. Climb to the top of it. D. Learn the history of the museum.
32. When was the building of the Arc de Triomphe finished？
A. In 1806. B. In 1836. C. In1839. D. In 1906.
33. What could players learn at the Olympic Village？
A. How to make their own bread. B. How to make cheese with special taste.
C. Painting skills from the other players. D. Building knowledge about the artworks.
34. How can you eat French cheeses according to the text？
① Eat them with milk. ② Eat them with salad.
③ Eat them with bread. ④ Eat them on their own.
A. ①②③ B. ①②④ C. ①③④ D. ②③④
35. What’s the best title for the text？
A. Delicious Foods in France B. The Summer Olympic Games
C. A Wonderful City in France D. The History of the Louvre Museum
D
At a school in Hampden, Maine, David Bishop works as a cleaner. But he is also known as the coach (教练) of the chess teams at Reeds Brook Middle School and Weatherbee Elementary School.
Both teams have made great achievements in competitions. Some people compare Bishop to a character from a television program, The Queen’s Gambit (《女王的棋局》). It is about a girl who learned to play chess from a cleaner and she finally became a great chess player. But unlike the character in the program, Bishop is helping a lot of young chess players — not just one girl.
Sometimes, the chess players beat (击败) their teacher. At first, Bishop did not like losing to the children. He called it humiliating (丢脸的). But then he understood it was good for him to lose. That meant his students were getting stronger.
Bishop said he was a good chess player as a boy. But he did not like to let his friends know that, worrying he would be thought as a nerd. Now that the game is more popular among young people, no one thinks less of young chess players like Eli Marquis, who is 12. Marquis joined other players on a recent day at his school’s library. All the students were either playing or watching chess.
The young people think that chess can help them think ahead, consider strategies (策略) and think about the influence of their decisions. “Playing chess is like a training for the brain,” Bishop said.
Bishop said he wants to see his players get better, even if that means losing to them more often. He is happy to see so many young people playing the game but he is a little disappointed that there is only one girl on his middle school team and he hopes that will change.
36. How is Bishop different from the character in the program
A. He works as a cleaner. B. He wins more chess competitions.
C. He teaches more chess players. D. He prefers to teach adult players.
37. How did Bishop feel when first beaten by his students
A. Scared. B. Sorry. C. Surprised. D. Satisfied.
38. Why does the writer give Marquis’s example in Paragraph 4
A. To describe Marquis’s love for chess.
B. To encourage more elders to learn chess.
C. To introduce Marquis’s achievements in chess.
D. To show chess is more popular with young people now.
39. What makes Bishop a little disappointed
A. He loses to his students more often.
B. There are few chess competitions for students.
C. The chess is still not a popular game.
D. His middle school team has too few girl players.
40. What is the text mainly about
A. A school cleaner who coaches chess teams.
B. How playing chess exercises your brain.
C. How successful Bishop is in chess.
D Young people who learn to play chess.
第二节 阅读七选五
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
Nobody wants to spend too much time looking for things in their bag. If you have to clear out your bag every time you need to find your pencil box, you should think about how you pack (打包) the bag. ____41____ It can also make you feel comfortable to carry. Let’s see the steps below.
Lay out all your things.
Pack your bag the day before you need it. Think about what you need to take to school the next day. ____42____ And then you can start to put things together.
____43____
To make it easier to find things when you need them, try grouping things. You could even put some things in another, smaller bag. For example, put your pens, pencils and erasers in a pencil box. Then put your mirror and hairbrush in a small bag.
Pack smartly.
____44____ For example, big books should be put at the bottom (底部). Things that you will need to use often should be at the top. Leave room for your fruit or lunch.
Make sure you feel good.
When you finish packing, close your bag and try it out. It should feel comfortable to wear or to carry. ____45____
A. Group things together.
B. How you pack is important.
C. Put things in the right place.
D. Ask your mum how to pack things.
E. You can also write down if it helps.
F. If not, you might need to move things around.
G. A well-organized bag can make you ready for your lessons.
第三部分 语言运用（共四节，满分35分）
第一节 补全对话
阅读下面对话，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳答案完成对话。
Emily: Hello, Carlos. _____46_____
Carlos: Fine, thank you. What are you doing, Emily
Emily: I’m reading news about Quan Hongchan now. _____47_____
Carlos: Yes. But I just know a little about her.
Emily: Here’s the exciting news. She won the gold medal again at the 2024 Paris Olympic Games.
Carlos: Wow, she is really a talented diver.
Emily: _____48_____
Carlos: Totally agree. She encourages us to work hard.
Emily: Yes. Many young people want to be players like her when they grow up.
Carlos: Sounds great. _____49_____
Emily: I want to be a doctor. How about you, Carlos
Carlos: I hope to be a TV reporter one day.
Emily: _____50_____
46.
A. How’s the weather B. How’s everything going
C. How do you like it D. How do you go there
47.
A. Do you know her B. Is she more hard-working
C. Does she sing well D. Are you the same age as her
48.
A. That’s why she takes part in the games.
B. We can expect to learn a lot about sports.
C. So I think she’s luckier than the others.
D. And she is a good example for us to follow.
49.
A. What’s your dream job B. What do you think of her
C. What do you plan to watch D. What do you have in common
50.
A. That’s up to you to decide. B. What nice people we are!
C. Hope our dreams will come true! D. You can be anything you want.
第二节 完形填空 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
On the May Day vacation in 2024, the Qiao’s Grand Courtyard (乔家大院) in Shanxi had an activity to let visitors learn about Shanxi’s traditional culture. The Qiao’s Grand Courtyard is a ____51____ place with a long history. Many famous TV shows and ____52____ were shot (拍摄) here.
The Qiao’s Grand Courtyard ____53____ in Qi county. It shows the style of Chinese people’s ____54____ in the Qing Dynasty. This courtyard started to be built in 1756. After more houses were added, it ____55____ a big building group. The Qiao’s Grand Courtyard is very special ____56____ every house is joined by corridors (走廊).This makes it ____57____ for the host to protect (保护) the yard.
From the main door, a long ____58____ opens to the main hall. This road divides (分成) the courtyard into the South Yard and the North Yard. Each yard has a main room for the host and side rooms for ____59____. The Qiao’s Grand Courtyard _____60_____ has many colorful paintings.
With _____61_____ three walls facing the street, the courtyard isn’t joined to other buildings. Seen from above, it _____62_____ the Chinese word “囍”. The word means _____63_____ and luck in China.
In 1986, it became a museum _____64_____ about 5,000 works. These works _____65_____ the folk customs (民俗) in mid-Shanxi. You can learn about Shanxi’s culture in the Qiao’s Grand Courtyard！
51. A. cold B. natural C. quiet D. wonderful
52. A. books B. cartoons C. movies D. paintings
53. A. sits B. moves C. keeps D. covers
54. A. shops B. houses C. parks D. farms
55. A. left B. grew C. became D. stood
56. A. though B. or C. if D. because
57. A. easy B. hard C. slow D. normal
58. A. bridge B. road C. river D. trip
59. A. doctors B. farmers C. visitors D. actors
60. A. still B. also C. just D. almost
61. A. his B. their C. her D. its
62. A. looks like B. looks at C. looks up D. looks for
63. A. surprise B. kindness C. happiness D. prize
64. A. for B. with C. at D. of
65. A. bring B. teach C. report D. show
第三节 语法填空 阅读下面句子，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。（共7小题；每小题1分，满分7分）
66. Tom spoke _________ (loud) when he was excited.
67. I don’t like scary movies because they are ________ (meaning).
68. Did Cindy buy _________ (something) for her mother in Beijing？
69. The shopping mall is always ________ (crowd) on weekends.
70. My brother is _______ (funny) than me. He makes people laugh a lot.
71. We had a _________ (discuss) about TV shows in today’s English class.
72. The young man _________ (stand) up suddenly when he heard the good news.
第四节 阅读填空
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
The 2024 Paralympic Games (残奥会) started on August 28, 2024 in France. There were about 4,400 disabled ____73____ (play) in the Paralympic Games.
Daphne Schrager was one of them. She became a cyclist in 2019. In 2022, she ____74____ (win) her first world award (奖). To get to the Paralympic Games was the ____75____ (big) dream for her. She trained hard for the game.
There was something wrong with Schrager’s brain, so it was difficult for her ____76____ (move) freely like other people. ____77____ she never gave up and kept training hard. Cycling made her forget her disability. “Cycling ____78____ (bring) me great fun and happiness.” Schrager said. And she hoped all people could have ____79____ (they) dreams and try to make them come true.
“I’m happy I can take part ____80____ the 2024 Paralympic Games. I will always try my best for my dreams in the future life.” Schrager said.
第四部分 写作：（共两节，满分35分）
第一节 情境运用
根据所提供的图片，用一个完整的句子提问或应答。
81.
A: What does your brother think of sports shows？
B: ________________________________.
82.
A: ________________________________？
B: Once a month. And I went there yesterday.
83.
A: Did Linda play the guitar at the party？
B: No. ________________________________.
84.
A: ________________________________
B: Yes, it is. It’s only $75.
85.
A: ______________________________ ？
B: 22% of the students like it.
第二节 作文（满分25分）
86. 某英文网站正在开展以“A (An) ________ Day”为题的征文活动。请补全题目并用英语写一篇短文投稿。
内容包括：1. What happened that day 2. What did you learn？
写作要求：1.文中不得出现真实的人名、校名等信息；
2.表意清晰、流畅，行文连贯，书写规范；
3.词数80-100左右。
__________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
八年级期中学业质量调研
英语试题 简要答案
第一部分 听力（共四节，满分30分）
第一节 听录音，从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
【1题答案】
【答案】B
【2题答案】
【答案】C
【3题答案】
【答案】B
【4题答案】
【答案】A
【5题答案】
【答案】A
第二节 在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
【6题答案】
【答案】C
【7题答案】
【答案】B
【8题答案】
【答案】B
【9题答案】
【答案】A
【10题答案】
【答案】C
第三节 在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
【11~15题答案】
【答案】11. B 12. C 13. A 14. B 15. A
第四节 在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间；听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。（共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分）
【16~20题答案】
【答案】16. A 17. C 18. B 19. C 20. A
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节 阅读理解 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。（共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分）
A
【21~25题答案】
【答案】21. D 22. C 23. A 24. D 25. B
B
【26~30题答案】
【答案】26. A 27. B 28. C 29. C 30. D
C
【31~35题答案】
【答案】31. B 32. B 33. A 34. D 35. C
D
【36~40题答案】
【答案】36. C 37. B 38. D 39. D 40. A
第二节 阅读七选五
【41~45题答案】
【答案】41. G 42. E 43. A 44. C 45. F
第三部分 语言运用（共四节，满分35分）
第一节 补全对话
【46~50题答案】
【答案】46. B 47. A 48. D 49. A 50. C
第二节 完形填空 阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
【51~65题答案】
【答案】51. D 52. C 53. A 54. B 55. C 56. D 57. A 58. B 59. C 60. B 61. D 62. A 63. C 64. B 65. D
第三节 语法填空 阅读下面句子，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。（共7小题；每小题1分，满分7分）
【66题答案】
【答案】loudly
【67题答案】
【答案】meaningless
【68题答案】
【答案】anything
【69题答案】
【答案】crowded
【70题答案】
【答案】funnier
【71题答案】
【答案】discussion
【72题答案】
【答案】stood
第四节 阅读填空
【73~80题答案】
【答案】73 players
74. won 75. biggest
76. to move
77. But 78. brings
79. their 80. in
第四部分 写作：（共两节，满分35分）
第一节 情境运用
【81~85题答案】
【答案】81. He doesn’t mind them
82. How often do you go to the cinema
83. She sang a song
84. Is Judy’s bag cheaper than Angela’s
85. What percent of the students like the hands-on project
第二节 作文（满分25分）
【86题答案】
【答案】例文
A Meaningful Day
Last Friday was a sunny day. I went to a farm with my classmates for a school trip.
When we arrived, a farmer showed us around and told us what farmers do every day. We watered plants, gave food to animals, and picked vegetables. We learned how food grows and how much work it takes to grow it.
This day was meaningful because I got to see nature up close and understand that hard work is good for us. It made me appreciate the effort farmers put into their jobs.

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