樊城区2024—2025学年度下学期期末学业质量监测
八年级英语试题
（时间：100分钟 满分：90分）
注意事项：
1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在试卷和答题卡上，并将准考证号条形码粘贴在答题卡上指定位置。
2．选择题的作答：每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。写在试卷、草稿纸和答题卡上的非答题区域均无效。
3．非选择题的作答：用黑色签字笔直接答在答题卡上对应的答题区域内。写在试卷、草稿纸和答题卡上的非答题区域均无效。
4．考试结束后，请将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
笔试部分（共90分）
一、完形填空（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读短文，从每小题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
I love spending time with kids. So, when I heard about the work at Happy Kids Center, I couldn’t wait to sign up. Last Saturday, I worked as a (n) ____1____ at the center. Mrs. Chen, the headmaster, handed me a uniform printed with little stars. Looking at the laughing kids behind me, I felt ____2____ and a bit nervous.
“Look at my picture,” shouted Mary, an 8-year-old girl, holding up a bright paper sun. “It’s so creative,” I said. “Let’s ____3____ your sun.”
Suddenly, a boy called Leo came running. He stood with a ____4____ toy car, tears in his eyes.
“Let’s ____5____ it,” I said. We sat on the floor, carefully repairing. “Blue tape will make it nicer!”
When the car rolled again, Leo whispered (低声说), “The____6____ is that I… I broke it by accident.”
I answered, “That’s really ____7____ of you to be honest.”
Then, Mrs. Chen brought in a box of bright paints. Kids ran to her except (除了) Lily. Her hands ____8____ her back．
“Your brother painted a beautiful tree last week,” I said, sitting by her. “Do you want to try flowers like his ”
____9____, she started drawing. I saw her smile and her face was full of joy.
At snack time, Lily shyly pushed her painting ____10____. I gently touched her head and said, “Lily, your painting is truly excellent.”
Seeing the sunset, I quickly borrowed Mrs. Chen’s ____11____. The kids posed (摆姿势) with their works, and Lily showed her painting happily.
While saying ____12____, Mrs. Chen handed me the gift—a picture of smiling kids. She said, “Thank you for helping our stars ____13____ brighter.”
I realized that even a ____14____day at the center could become special when people provide kindness. As I walked home I thought about the ____15____ of seeing kids grow. Volunteering isn’t just about doing jobs but about helping every star find their light in the sky.
1. A. worker B. maker C. volunteer D. engineer
2. A. sad B. perfect C. shocked D. excited
3. A. put up B. make up C. wake up D. take up
4. A. new B. strange C. broken D. cheap
5. A. throw B. fix C. invent D. count
6. A. reason B. change C. research D. truth
7 A. brave B. silly C. clever D. weak
8. A. moved around B. hid behind C. held beside D. stayed above
9. A. Quickly B. Suddenly C. Slowly D. Luckily
10. A. forward B. back C. away D. down
11. A. tool B. object C. record D. camera
12. A. goodbye B. thanks C. hello D. yes
13. A. look B. keep C. shine D. paint
14. A. strange B. common C. noisy D. busy
15. A. fear B. pressure C. challenge D. joy
二、阅读理解（共20小题，每小题2分，满分40分）
第一节（共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分）
Welcome to Happy Reading Club
This term’s reading book list: Fun picks for you
Writer: Lewis Carroll Main character: Alice the Mad Hatter, the Cheshire Cat, and the Queen of Hearts. Plot (情节): Alice falls into a rabbit hole and enters a magical world. She meets strange characters. Her journeys are filled with surprises and funny moments. The story shows creative thinking and growing up.
Writer: Louisa May Alcott Main characters: Four sisters—Meg, Jo, Beth, and Amy. Plot: They grow up in a difficult time in America. The book shows their family love, daily challenges, and hopes. It teaches about kindness, helping others, and being yourself. This warm story is loved for its close family relationships and fun characters.
Writer: Mark Twain Main characters: Tom Sawyer and his friend Huck Finn. Plot: Tom is a playful and smart boy who loves exciting trips. He tricks (忽悠) friends into painting a wall and looks for treasure with his friend Huck. The book shows his bravery, love for freedom and fun with friends. Full of funny parts and clever ideas, it teaches about friendship and growing up.
16. Who enjoys travelling in the magical world
A. Amy. B. Huck. C. Tom. D. Alice.
17. How does Little Women mainly show family relationships
A. By kidding one another. B. By showing the sisters’ success.
C. By helping each other with love. D. By competing for more attention.
18. Which words can best describe Tom Sawyer
A. Helpful and strange. B. Kind and quiet.
C. Brave and smart. D. Playful and serious.
19. What are the three stories mainly about
A. Growing up. B. Looking for hope.
C. Facing challenges. D. Spending with families.
20. Which section of a magazine is this passage probably taken from
A. Sports. B. Culture. C. Tradition. D. Health.
B
One cold autumn morning 11-year-old Mia moved into a small apartment in Beijing. Feeling lonely in the busy city, she sat by her window, watching people bike through hutongs. Suddenly, a bright red paper butterfly flew into her room. Mia looked out—a boy with round glasses was saying “hello” from the window next door.
“I’m Li Hao”, he called, holding up a paper bird. “Welcome to the neighborhood,” Mia felt shy but excited, folded a paper flower and threw it back. Li Hao caught it with a cheer. From that day, their windows became a place for paper art—dancing dragons, jumping pandas, and even a small Great Wall.
One weekend, Li Hao didn’t appear. Mia waited until it got dark. The next day, a paper rocket shot into her room with a note: “I had a fever. Grandma says no going out. Let’s make something AMAZING online,” Mia smiled. She video-called him, holding up a piece of blue paper—“Let’s create Beijing in four seasons”.
For two weeks, they worked like magic. Li Hao folded golden autumn leaves and icy winter towers. Mia made flowers for spring and a shining summer sun. They hung their artwork on a line between buildings. Not long after, a 3D paper Beijing was swinging in the air.
When the Mid-Autumn Festival came, the two friends lit paper lanterns. They laughed, gave each other a paper toy. When winter came, they taught kids in the neighborhood to fold paper snowmen. At the Spring Festival party, their artworks (艺术作品) about “Four Seasons of Beijing” won first prize.
Years later, whenever Mia saw paper art, she’d remember Li Hao’s first butterfly. Their friendship showed that in a big city, happiness could grow as quietly as a paper flower unfolding—and that two kind hearts could build bridges stronger than walls.
21. How did Li Hao welcome Mia to the neighborhood
A. By inviting her to his house.
B. By giving her a real butterfly.
C. By teaching her to ride a bike.
D. By showing her a paper insect and saying hello.
22. Put the following events in the correct order:
①Mia moved to Beijing.
②Li Hao sent a paper rocket to Mia.
③Li Hao and Mia created “Four Seasons of Beijing”.
④Li Hao and Mia exchanged paper art through the windows.
A. ③④②① B. ①④②③ C. ②①③④ D. ①②④③
23. What does “worked like magic” mean in paragraph 4
A. worked very slowly B. worked in a magical place
C. created wonderful things quickly D. used real magic
24. Which word best describes Li Hao and Mia
A. Brave. B. Creative. C. Quiet. D. Shy.
25. What’s the best title for the story
A. The Making of a Paper Bird.
B. The Paper Gift by A Sick Boy.
C. The School Life of Mia in Beijing.
D. The Friendship Built by Paper Art.
C
Throughout our daily lives, we can always hear voices reminding us to drink water. Teachers ask us to drink water during breaks and health experts say that water can improve our skin and help manage our weight. But a common question remains: how much water should we actually take in
For a long time, many people have stuck to the “8×8 rule,” believing that drinking eight glasses of water, eight times a day, is perfect. This idea, however, came from a misunderstanding. In 1945, scientists suggested drinking an amount (数量) of water for how much food we eat. That’s about eight glasses every day.
But the truth is, different people need very different amounts of water every day. For example, a sportsman who trains for hours might need much more water than someone who spends most of the day sitting at a desk. Our weight, age and how active we are all decide how much water we need.
So, do we need to strictly control how much water we drink Dr Stanley Goldfarb doesn’t think so. Our body has a great self-control system. When our body needs water, we feel thirsty, a clear sign to drink up. Also, our body can save water well and start working before we feel thirsty. Water offers many benefits (益处). It helps keep our body temperature normal, take away waste in the body and protect our joints (关节).
In short, your body is very smart. Don’t worry too much about how much water you should drink every day. Your body can take care of itself and tell you when it needs more water. Just listen to your body and you’ll stay healthy.
26. The “8×8 rule” mentioned in the second paragraph is about ________ to drink.
A. how much B. when C. how fast D. why
27. How does the writer support the idea that different people need different amounts of water
A. By listing real numbers.
B. By using expert opinions.
C. By sharing personal stories.
D. By comparing sportsmen and desk workers.
28. In the fourth paragraph, the underlined word “It” refers to ________.
A. food B. water C. the body D. the joint
29. Which of the following best shows the structure of the passage （①=Paragraph 1②=Paragraph 2…）
A. B. C. D.
30. What does the writer want us to do
A. Stop drinking water in the evening.
B Worry about how much water we drink.
C. Listen to our body when we are thirsty.
D. Drink as much water as possible every day.
第二节（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
阅读短文，从所给的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项，使短文通顺、连贯。选项中有一项为多余选项。
Have you ever visited a museum Did you make a plan before the visit Every museum must have something that interests you. ____31____. The following advice may help you.
●Decide which kind of museum you will visit. There are different kinds of museums and you first need to find one that you like. ____32____.
●Look through the information online. Every museum now has a website (网站). You can look through the information about the museum. On the website, you can find things such as the history of the museum, activities in it and its ticket price. ____33____.
●Learn new things. It is always good to learn something new from your visit.
●____34____. When you walk around for a long time, you may become very tired. It is important to take breaks. It can make you think of what you have seen and what else you want to do.
●Take a friend. Visiting a museum is always much more enjoyable when you are with a friend. ____35____. A friend may bring another way of thinking when you talk about the museum.
A. Plan breaks into your visit.
B. Having a good sleep is also a good way for you.
C. It’ll make your visit easier and more interesting.
D. You can talk about what you’re seeing with each other.
E. And there are many ways to enjoy yourself in a museum.
F. It’s not hard for you to choose one and start an enjoyable visit.
三、短文填空（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读短文，从方框中选出正确的词并用其适当形式填空，使短文通顺、意思完整。每空限填一词，每词限用一次。
begin close easy food free first follow idea live when
Deep in the forest, there was a group of doves (鸽子) living by a lake. One day, under the lead of their king, the doves flew away to look for ____36____. The smallest dove found some rice under a tree. So all the doves came down and ____37____ to eat.
Suddenly, a net fell over them and soon they were all in it. Then a man came. The doves tried to get out of the net, but they couldn’t. The oldest dove had a(n) ____38____. He advised all the doves to fly up carrying the net with them. He said they would get away ___39___ if they worked together. The other doves did so and they made it.
The man was shocked. He tried to ____40____ them, but they were flying high. The doves then flew to a hill because there ____41____ a mouse and they thought he could help them. He was a good friend of the dove king. ____42____ they arrived, the dove king told the mouse what had happened. He asked him to set them ____43____. The mouse said that he would set the dove king free ____44____. But the king asked him to set his subjects (臣民) free before himself. And he was the last one to come out.
The doves all thanked the mouse and flew away together. They smiled and felt ____45____ to each other than before. And from that day on, they always remembered to help each other.
四、读写结合（共两节，满分25 分）
第一节任务型阅读（共5 小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
阅读短文，用英文填空或回答问题(请注意每小题的词数要求)。
Chinese tea culture has over 4,000 years of history. It is more than a drink, showing Chinese wisdom (智慧). Let’s see its journey through time.
Long long ago, Chinese ruler Shennong found tea when leaves fell into his boiling water (沸水). Then tea started to become popular. During the Tang Dynasty, people drank tea for health and pleasure. Many of them wrote poems about tea. And at that time, Lu Yu wrote the world’s first tea book. Today, tea still connects (连接) past and present, but now we enjoy it everywhere—from quiet tea houses to busy offices.
Making tea needs skills. Gongfu tea in southern China is a good example. People use small cups and a teapot. They warm cups, add leaves, then pour hot water slowly. As tea flows out, a fresh smell rises. Adults often drink slowly to calm their hearts, while children might prefer sweet milk tea or cold fruit tea in summer.
Tea also expresses love. When guests come, families say, “Have some tea!” Serving elders first shows respect (尊重). Parents teach kids that holding cups with both hands is a simple polite act. In the past, people shared tea during long talks. Today, we prefer using it for quick meetings with friends.
Tea helps us learn to stay calm and be kind to others. Whether you like its rich taste or light taste, tea connects the past with today. As the saying goes, “Simple is best.” Just like a cup of tea, it seems simple but has a deep meaning. Though it’s an old tradition, it always feels fresh and new.
46. This passage is mainly talking about _________. (不超过3个词)
47. People drank tea to _________ during the Tang Dynasty. (不超过5个词)
48. Fill in the blanks according to the passage.
Chinese Tea Culture Traditional Gongfu Tea Drink tea as the following steps: Warm cups→Add leaves→ ________. (不超过4个词)
Modern Tea Habits Enjoy in offices and quick meetings with new styles like milk tea and fruit tea!
Tea Manners Serve elders first and ________. (不超过5个词)
49. What’s your understanding of “Simple is best” Use your own words. (结合自身实际，不超过20词)
________________________________________
第二节书面表达（共1题，满分15分）
50. 假设你是八年级一班的李华，学校英语角正开展保护可爱的大熊猫的征文活动。请你根据如下海报及写作要求，用英文撰写一篇征文。
Notice: Writing Competition for English Corner Dear Students, The school English Corner is holding a writing competition to call for protecting lovely pandas! We hope you can share ideas on how to help these cute animals. What are pandas like Why do pandas need protection What can we do to protect them … Looking forward to your sharing Send an email to Englishcorner@ by June 30.
要点提示：
①根据上图所给提示，适当发挥；
②文中不得出现真实姓名和校名；
③词数80词左右，开头已给出，不计入总词数。
Hello, everyone. I’m Li Hua from Class 1, Grade 8. Today, I want to talk about our national treasure—the pandas.
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樊城区2024—2025学年度下学期期末学业质量监测
八年级英语试题
（时间：100分钟 满分：90分）
注意事项：
1．答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号填写在试卷和答题卡上，并将准考证号条形码粘贴在答题卡上指定位置。
2．选择题的作答：每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。写在试卷、草稿纸和答题卡上的非答题区域均无效。
3．非选择题的作答：用黑色签字笔直接答在答题卡上对应的答题区域内。写在试卷、草稿纸和答题卡上的非答题区域均无效。
4．考试结束后，请将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
笔试部分（共90分）
一、完形填空（共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分）
【1~15题答案】
1. C 2. D 3. A 4. C 5. B 6. D 7. A 8. B 9. C 10. A 11. D 12. A 13. C 14. B 15. D
二、阅读理解（共20小题，每小题2分，满分40分）
第一节（共15小题，每小题2分，满分30分）
【16~20题答案】
16. D 17. C 18. C 19. A 20. B
B
【21~25题答案】
21. D 22. B 23. C 24. B 25. D
C
【26~30题答案】
26. A 27. D 28. B 29. A 30. C
第二节（共5小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
【31~35题答案】
31. E 32. F 33. C 34. A 35. D
三、短文填空（共10小题，每小题1分，满分10分）
【36~45题答案】
36. food
37. began 38. idea
39. easily 40. follow
41. lived 42. When
43. free 44. first
45. closer
四、读写结合（共两节，满分25 分）
第一节任务型阅读（共5 小题，每小题2分，满分10分）
【46~49题答案】
46. Chinese tea culture
47. keep healthy and happy
48. ①. Pour hot water slowly ②. hold cups with both hands
49. Simple things often have deep meanings./Simple life brings true happiness./... (答案不唯一)
第二节书面表达（共1题，满分15分）
【50题答案】
例文：
Hello, everyone. I’m Li Hua from Class 1, Grade 8. Today, I want to talk about our national treasure—the pandas.
Pandas are famous for their black-and-white fur and round faces. They spend most of their time eating bamboo, which is their main food. How lovely they are!
But pandas are in great danger now. Their living places are becoming smaller as cities grow. Also, some bamboo forests are disappearing, leaving them with less food.
We must act now. We can support pandas by donating to wildlife groups. What’s more, telling others about their situation can help. Let’s try our best to make sure pandas have a safe home.

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