2024学年第二学期八年级期末学业评价调测试卷 (2025. 6)
英语试卷
考生须知：
1. 全卷共8页，共四部分，71小题，全卷满分100分，考试时间90分钟。
2. 答案必须写在答题纸相应的位置上，写在试题卷、草稿纸上均无效。
3. 答题前，请认真阅读答题纸上的《注意事项》，按规定答题。
试卷I (选择题 共60分)
第一部分 听力理解 (共三节，满分15分)
第一节：听小对话，回答问题 (共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分) 。
1. Who is going to clean the living room
A. Tina. B. Grandma. C. Tony.
2. What's the matter with Ben
A. He has a toothache. B. He has a backache. C. He has a headache.
3. How was John's morning
A. Exciting. B. Unlucky. C. Relaxing.
4. Where was Kate when it was snowing
A. In the cinema. B. At home. C. At a bus stop.
5. Why can't the boy use the car
A. Because the car is broken.
B. Because Mom needs to pick up grandpa.
C. Because the boy is too young to drive.
第二节：听较长对话，回答问题 (共5小题，每小题 1 分，满分 5 分) 。
听下面一段对话，回答第6—7两个小题。
6. Why does Jeff want to keep the story books
A. They're still interesting to read. B. They're gifts from his friend. C. He can sell them for money.
7. When will Jeff and Mom go to the children's home
A. On Saturday morning. B. On Sunday morning. C. On Sunday afternoon.
听下面一段对话，回答第8—10三个小题。
8. What's the possible relationship between the two speakers
A. Host and guest. B. Guide and visitor. C. Teacher and student.
9. How long did it take Helen to get to the top
A. For about two hours. B. For about three hours. C. For about four hours.
10. What are the two speakers mainly talking about
A. Photos of interesting places. B. The trip to China. C. The weather in Huangshan.
第三节：听独白，回答问题 (共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分) 。
11. Who is giving the notice
A. An animal doctor. B. The head of the hospital. C. A school teacher.
12. How does the speaker feel about the volunteer work
A. Easy. B. Tiring. C. Meaningful.
13. What will the volunteers do
A. Help clean the animals’ rooms. B. Teach the animals to talk. C. Show visitors around the hospital.
14. How often will the volunteers help in the hospital
A. Once a week. B. Twice a week. C. Three times a week.
15. When will the volunteers begin the work
A. On July 5th. B. On July 10th. C. On July 15th.
第二部分 阅读理解 (共两节，满分35分)
第一节 (共15小题，每小题2分，共计30分)
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Being at home calls for some creativity to take the kids on an adventure (冒险) . How can you make a fun indoor camping experience Sleep in a tent To make the camping real, try and sleep in a real tent. If you don't have one, then you can always set up a simple tent out of blankets (毯子) and your dining room table. Fill the inside of your tent with sleeping bags and torch (火炬) . The kids may want to bring their fairy lights and soft toys to the inside of the tent, too. Make a pretend campfire (假篝火) Get the kids to make a pretend campfire. You can use some colored card and shine a torch. You can also add some firewood around it. If you are lucky enough to have a real fireplace, then use this instead! The best thing about a campfire is that your family can sit around it to tell scary stories, make shadow puppets (影子木偶) or play campfire games. Bedtime stories by flashlight Children will enjoy reading bedtime stories by flashlight in their tent. Somehow reading by flashlight always makes stories seem more exciting for kids. Your little ones will fall asleep from their indoor camping adventure. And it's time for you to relax and enjoy watching them sleep.
16. According to the text, how can we make the indoor camping more fun
A. By sleeping in a real tent. B. By making wood into different objects.
C. By playing with lights. D. By playing games on the phones.
17. What can we do around a campfire
A. Tell scary stories. B. Enjoy beautiful nature.
C. Cook delicious food. D. Have a competition.
18. Who may be most interested in the text
A. James. a businessman who sells schoolbags. B. Mary. a teacher who wants to make her class fun.
C. John. a father who has a three-year-old daughter. D. Alice, a college student who's looking for a job.
B
On April 12, a group of campers in a California forest heard a crying noise. They found a small black baby bear that was alone. The California Department of Fish and Wildlife kept an eye on the bear. When the mother didn't return, they took him to the Ramona Wildlife Center.
The baby bear was in bad shape. He was 2 to 3 months old, and he hadn't eaten for several days. Workers at the center weren't sure if he would survive. But they did what they could. They looked after him carefully, feeding him several times a day, and even at night. Soon he began to improve and put on weight. He's now nearly 10 pounds heavier than when he arrived.
Nowadays, the workers are trying to keep him as wild as possible. That means they can't let him get used to humans. When the workers are around the baby bear, they wear a bear mask (面罩) , a big bear coat and they wear thick gloves (手套) , and try not to let the bear see or smell their body. They even try to make their special clothes smell like a real black bear.
Workers also try to teach the baby bear the skills he'll need to live on his own. They've set up an indoor and outdoor area for the baby bear to live in and experience. They've made the areas as natural as possible. The workers do things that a mother bear might do, like teaching him how to catch insects (昆虫) for food.
The baby bear is still young, but he's learning and growing quickly. The center hopes the baby bear can be set free in the wild in about a year.
19. What does Paragraph 2 mainly tell us
A. What the baby bear was like. B. How workers cared for the baby bear.
C. Why the baby bear came to the center. D. Where workers found the baby bear.
20. What does the underlined word “survive” in Paragraph 2 probably mean
A. be independent B. lose weight
C. continue to live D. get popular
21. Why do the workers at the Center dress up as bears
A. Because the bear likes their special clothes.
B. Because they want the bear to stay in a natural environment.
C. Because it's dangerous for people to get close to the bear.
D. Because the bear would like to live with his mother.
22. What's the best title of the passage
A. How to Train the Wild Animals B. Making a Baby Bear Smarter
C. How to Get Along With the Animals D. Keeping a Baby Bear Wild
C
In recent years, many countries seem to have lost interest in holding world's events like the Olympics (奥运会) . While 11 cities wanted to host the 2004 Olympics, that number dropped to just two for the 2024 Games. The World Expo (世博会) , however, doesn't seem to be losing popularity. The 2025 World Expo, which opened in Osaka, Japan, on April 13, has interested four countries and more than 1 million visitors.
Why is there a difference One reason might be the high cost of hosting the Olympics. Host cities often spend more than expected, needing to build special sports field and provide hotels for many athletes and tourists. For example, the Tokyo Games in 2021 spent about $15. 4 billion, according to AP News.
Hosting a World Expo seems to be a better choice. The news website Stuff reported that the UAEgovernment spent over $7 billion on the 2020 Dubai World Expo - much less than the Tokyo Olympics. Yet, the event played an important role in helping the UAE government. One important result is, Expo City Dubai reused 80 percent of its buildings built for the World Expo.
Holding a World Expo can also help develop the whole country. Before the 1992 World Expo, Spain (西班牙) built its first high-speed railway for the host city, Seville. This made many Spanish people travel much more easily. In the past, many people dislike to leave their hometowns. But now, more and more people travel between cities by high-speed railway. According to CNN, Spain now has the second-longest high-speed railway network in the world.
In today's world, where many countries face serious challenges, the World Expo shows us that technology can help build a better future. It encourages each country to search for future's solutions.
23. How does the writer show us that holding the Olympics gets less popular
A. By comparing numbers. B. By telling stories.
C. By making reports. D. By asking questions.
24. Why does holding the Olympics get less popular
A. Because it will cause the heavy traffic. B. Because it needs lots of money.
C. Because the pollution may be more serious. D. Because the competition is crazy.
25. What can be the good result of holding a World Expo
A. Solving healthy problems. B. Making the host city bigger.
C. Building the most railways D. Helping with social development.
26. What can we infer (推断) from the last paragraph
A. The World Expo can solve any challenge. B. Each country should hold big events.
C. Technology makes a difference to countries. D. Traveling would get more popular.
D
Are you planning to visit the Legoland Shanghai Resort (上海乐高乐园度假区) during your coming summer vacation
The park. due to open on July 5 this summer, will have eight theme lands made from over 85million Lego bricks (积木) . One special highlight will be the world's first Lego Monkie Kid (悟空小侠) area. according to the Chinese classic Journey to the West.
Xinhua reported that The Making of Harry Potter studio tour and the Peppa Pig Theme Park are also coming to Shanghai, and both plan to open in 2027. But why is it always Shanghai
John Jakobsen, the officer of Legoland Resorts, told Xinhua that it's because of China's strong consumer (消费者) market. Especially in Shanghai, Jiangsu. Zhejiang and Anhui, there are about 55million possible consumers.
Another reason is that it's easy to get around in Shanghai. The city's subway now has 22 lines. Together with planes and high-speed trains, people from all over the country can easily reach the park. This is important for theme parks because it allows more visitors to come and enjoy, said The Paper.
Meanwhile. there are many shops, hotels and restaurants in Shanghai. They can meet the different needs of visitors, reported the Economic Daily.
The government is also playing a big role in bringing parks to Shanghai. According to the 2025Government Work Report, China will speed up more important events and work harder to develop cultural businesses and the tourism businesses.
27. What's special about the Legoland Shanghai Resort
A. It has the biggest theme lands. B. It has the first Lego Monkie Kid area.
C. It's made from Lego bricks. D. It's the first theme park in Shanghai.
28. Which of the followings make Shanghai a top choice for building theme parks
①big market ②beautiful environment ③easy travel ④government's help
A. ②③④ B. ①②③ C. ①②④ D. ①③④
29. What's the main purpose of the passage
A. To tell us where we can spend our vacation.
B. To teach us how to travel around Shanghai.
C. To explain why Shanghai is home to more theme parks.
D. To show us what the Legoland Shanghai Resort is like.
30. In which part of a newspaper can we read this passage
A. Healthy Living B. School Life C. Travel Guide D. Animal World
第二节 任务型阅读 (共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
阅读下面材料，从方框中所给的A~E五个选项中选出正确选项 (其中一项是多余选项) ，将其序号填入第31~34小题，并回答第35小题。
Taking a midday nap (打盹) is a common habit in China. A survey shows that nearly 68 percent of people in the country often like to nap. 31 Only about 2 percent of people never do.
32 Many elderly people have the habit of napping after lunch. They can do it for as long as they like because they have more free time. For school children, a midday nap is encouraged. For example, some schools turn reading rooms or gyms into napping spaces.
But not all parts of China have the same napping culture. 33 Shanxi, known as the “Sleeping Province”, is perhaps the most famous. Videos of Shanxi people napping have got popular online. Other places such as Anhui and Guangdong have also developed the habit. But in places like Shanghai, the culture is not as strong.
In Chinese culture, napping at noon is considered good for a person's health. 34 To have a healthier napping, here are some tips for you. Nap at least several minutes before you go to bed. Also, find a comfortable environment before you nap. Finally, the nap time should not be too long, or there would be no use.
A. Napping habits are different between age groups. B. It may help keep our brains healthy. C. Health is now a big topic for many young people. D. Some areas have a stronger one than the others. E. About 30 percent of people sometimes take a nap.
35. Would you like to take a midday nap Why (不超过15词)
____________________________________________________________________________________________
第三部分 语言运用 (共三节，满分35分)
第一节：完形填空 (共10小题，每小题1分，共计10分)
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
Liu Tao comes from a village in Henan Province. He fell in love with 36 as a child. But his poor family didn't have enough money for him to study art. After finishing primary school, he learned to work as a cook. 37 he had a hard life, he always found time to paint.
In 2004, a new job took Liu to Beijing, where he worked as a cook at Beihang University. But in his free time, he never 38 painting. Using clay from his hometown as paint and white towels (毛巾) , Liu developed his 39 way of painting—line drawing and coloring.
In 2009, Liu's 40 in painting caught the eye of artist Cai Jinsong. Liu held his own exhibition (展览) 41 Cai's help, showing more than 100 pieces of his works.
Seven years later, Liu was accepted into an art study program at Tsinghua University. There he 42 to develop his painting skills. His works won lots of praise (赞誉) and became more 43 known. One of his pieces has even been shown in Paris.
In 2019. outside of his work as a cook at Tsinghua University, Liu was invited by the China Artists Association (协会) and became a/ an 44 of it. Does he get tired of painting every day “Not at all,” said the artist. “I get a strong feeling of 45 when I'm holding a paintbrush! ”
36. A. writing B. cooking C. dancing D. drawing
37. A. After B. Although C. Because D. Unless
38. A. gave up B. took up C. talked about D. cared about
39. A. similar B. quick C. unusual D. proper
40. A. talent B. habit C. education D. advice
41. A. under B. against C. for D. with
42. A. stopped B. hurried C. continued D. refused
43. A. simply B. widely C. luckily D. naturally
44. A. writer B. owner C. member D. keeper
45. A. satisfaction B. protection C. fairness D. safety
试卷 II (非选择题 共40分)
第二节：词汇运用 (共15小题，每小题1分，共计15分)
A. 将方框中所给词 (词组) 的适当形式填入短文中，每词仅用一次。
peace clear make our way perfect both
I like the Hong Kong rock band Beyond. I still remember the day 46 when I first heard Beyond's songs. 47 the music and performances interested me a lot.
Though Beyond parted years ago, they left many 48 works for us. The topics of their songs include family, 49 and love.
Of all their works, I like Boundless Oceans, Vast Skies the most. It is a timeless classic! It encourages us to 50 to achieve our dreams.
B. 阅读下面短文，根据括号内所给汉语注释写出单词的正确形式 (每空一词) 。
What comes to your mind when you hear the phrase “red carpet (红毯) ” For plenty of people, it 51 (提醒) them of big events like film festivals. But it's not a 52 (现代) invention. It has a long history and was only used for people in high places in the beginning.
In an 53 (古代) Greek play, King Agamemnon is treated to a red carpet after the Trojan War. But people at the time 54 (想, 思考) that only gods could walk on it. The red carpet led to the king's terrible death.
Later, common people and 55 (迷, 狂热爱好者) could walk on a red carpet. Because of the expensive red dye, the red carpet wasn't widely used until more 56 (最近) in history. For example, James Monroe, the 57 (五) leader of the US, had a red carpet rolled out for him when he arrived in South Carolina in 1821. In the 1960s, 58 (在某处) in US, TV cameras started filming the stars walking on a red carpet. This practice hasn't 59 (改变) much so far.
60 (自……以来) then, the red carpet has become a show of respect. Think about it: Where have you walked on one
第三节：语法填空 (共10小题，每小题1分，共计10分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入一个适当的词，或填入括号中所给单词的正确形式。
This term, students at Gaoxin Junior Middle School can join their favorite activity classes. With55 different clubs, students have many choices to keep themselves busy. These classes take place every Thursday 61 4: 40 pm to 6: 05 pm.
In the soil and hydroponics club (水土栽培社团) , 62 of all, students learn important things like how 63 (tell) plants from each other. Then, they have 10 minutes to look at real plants 64 (close) . Finally, comes the most interesting and the 65 (great) part: They can plant their plants in the school garden! They need to choose the best way to care for different plants such as strawberries and 66 (potato) .
The clubs let students learn different subjects and help students grow in many ways. “It's interesting 67 difficult. In hydroponics, different plants need to stay in water with different PH levels. ” said Wang Yijie, 68 13-year-old boy. “So, I need to make water match their needs by adding something special. ”
“So far, being in the club 69 (teach) me the importance of teamwork, ” said 12-year-old Zhao Ruixi. “ 70 am also brave now and no longer feel nervous when I have to speak in front of many people. ”
第四部分 书面表达 (共1小题，满分15分)
71. 假设你是 Li Hua，昨天你收到好友 Jack 的一封电子邮件， Jack 向你倾诉他的烦恼并寻求你的帮助。请阅读邮件后回复。
Dear Li Hua, I really need your help. These days, my best friend and I are not talking to each other. I saw him bad-mouthing me with some other classmates after class, sometimes even on the Internet. I feel so sad that I can't focus on my study. What should I do Jack
注意：1. 回复须围绕上述问题展开，可适当增加细节，以使行文连贯；
2. 词数：80左右。回复的邮件开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数。
参考词汇: bad-mouth v. 说 (某人) 坏话 focus on 专注于
Hi Jack, I'm sorry you had to go through that. _________________________________________________________ ____________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________ I hope my advice will be helpful to you. Li Hua
2024学年第二学期八年级期末学业评价调测试卷 (2025. 6)
参考答案
第一部分 听力理解 (共三节，满分15分)
第一节 (共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
1-5 CCBAB
第二节 (共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
6-10 BCACB
第三节 (共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
11-15 BCAAC
第二部分 阅读理解 (共两节，满分35分)
第一节 (共15小题，每小题2分，共计30分)
16-20 AACBC 21-25 BDABD 26-30 CBDCC
第二节 任务型阅读 (共5小题，每小题1分，满分5分)
31-34 EADB
35. Yes. Because it's good for my health. (答案不唯一, 有理即可)
第三部分 语言运用 (共三节，满分35分)
第一节 完形填空 (共10小题，每小题1分，共计10分)
36-40 DBACA 41-45 DCBCA
第二节 词汇运用 (共15小题，每小题1分，共计15分)
46. clearly 47. Both 48. perfect 49. peace 50. make our way
51. reminds 52. modern 53. ancient 54. thought 55. fans
56. recently 57. fifth 58. somewhere 59. changed 60. Since
第三节 语法填空 (共10小题，每小题1分，共计10分)
61. from 62. first 63. to tell 64. closely 65. greatest
66. potatoes 67. but 68. a 69. has taught 70. I
第四部分 书面表达 (共1小题，满分15分)
71. 略

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