绝密★启用前
2023—2024学年第二学期期末学业质量监测
七年级 英语
注意事项：
1.本试卷共6页，六个大题，满分120分，考试时间100分钟。
2.本试卷上不要答题，请按答题卡上注意事项的要求直接把答案填写在答题卡上。答在试卷上的答案无效。
一、听力理解 (20 小题,每小题1 分,共20分)
第一节 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
1. What club does Ann want to join
A. The music club. B. The chess club. C. The soccer club.
2. Where is the park
A. It's across from a school.
B. It's next to the hospital.
C. It's behind the bank.
3. What does Mike look like
A. He has big eyes. B. He is strong and tall. C. He is short.
4. Where are the speakers
A. At home. B. In the hospital. C. In the classroom.
5. Why does Bill like tigers
A. Because they are interesting.
B. Because they are cute.
C. Because they are strong.
第二节 听下面几段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6至第7两个小题。
6. What is Jack doing
A. Playing soccer. B. Doing his homework. C. Cooking.
7. What subject does Jack like best
A. Chinese. B. Math. C. English.
听下面一段对话，回答第8至第9两个小题。
8. Where is Kate from
A. Shanghai. B. Beijing. C. Chongqing.
9. How is the weather in Kate's city now
A. Hot. B. Rainy. C. Cold.
听下面一段独白，回答第10至第12 三个小题。
10. What subject does Mr. Green teach
A. Math. B. Chinese. C. English.
11. How long does it take Mr. Green to get to school
A. 10 minutes. B. 20 minutes. C. 30 minutes.
12. Where does Mr. Green usually go with his students on weekends
A. To the library. B. To the zoo. C. To the farm.
听下面一段对话，回答第13 至第15 三个小题。
13. What does Bob eat for lunch at school
A. Noodles. B. Hamburgers. C. Rice.
14. What kind of noodles do Bob and Linda like
A. Beef noodles. B. Egg noodles. C. Mutton noodles.
15. How do they go to the new restaurant
A. By bike. B. By bus. C. On foot.
第三节 听下面一篇短文，根据所听内容将下面五幅图片排序。短文读两遍。
16. 17. 18. 19. 20.
二、阅读理解(20小题，每小题2分，共40分)
阅读下面四篇语言材料，然后按文后要求做题。
A
Bob is my good friend. He lives in a small village. His home is far from his school and the roads are not good. So it is difficult for him to get to school. He gets up at about six o'clock every day and has breakfast quickly. Then he leaves for school at about six twenty. First, he rides his bike to the bus station. It takes about forty minutes. Then he takes the No. 13 bus. It usually takes him about thirty minutes from the bus station to school. Sometimes he has no time for breakfast at home, so he has something on the bus.
“I dream of taking trains. It must be fun,” says Bob. He hopes(希望) he can go to college(上大学) in a big city some day. Why Then he can take a train to the big city!
根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
21. What time does Bob get up every day
A. At about 6:00. B. At about 6:15. C. At about 6:30. D. At about 7:00.
22. How does Bob get to school
A. By bike. B. By bus.
C. First by bike and then by bus. D. On foot.
23. How long does it take Bob from his home to school
A. About 50 minutes. B. About 60 minutes.
C. About 70 minutes. D. About 80 minutes.
24. What does the underlined word “something” mean
A. 礼物 B. 东西 C. 乐器 D. 工具
25. Which is TRUE
A. Bob's home is near his school.
B. Bob lives in the city.
C. It's not easy for Bob to get to school.
D. Bob has breakfast at home every day.
B
I'm Paul. Today is a sunny day. I am playing soccer with my friends on the playground.
Look at my friend Jack. He is a tall and strong boy. He has short black hair and big brown eyes. He is good at playing soccer. He is in the soccer club. Look! He is running after the ball and wants to get the ball. Another friend, Mike, also does well in playing soccer. He always tries his best in the game. Who is the lovely girl She is my sister, Ann. She has big eyes and long blonde hair. She is watching us and cheering(为……加油) us on.
We follow the rules when(当……时候) we play soccer. We are having a great time playing soccer.
根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
26. What's the weather like today
A. Sunny. B. Cold. C. Snowy. D. Rainy.
27. What is Paul doing
A. Playing soccer. B. Cooking. C. Listening to music. D. Watching TV.
28. Who is running after the ball
A. Ann. B. Jack. C. Mike. D. Paul.
29. What does Ann look like
A. She has big eyes with long hair. B. She is strong and tall.
C. She has short black hair. D. She is short.
30. Which is TRUE
A. The weather is hot. B. Paul has a brother.
C. Mike can't play soccer well. D. Jack's eyes are big and brown.
C
I love animals very much. I like cats best because they are very cute. But now I have no pets, because I have no time to look after them. If I have time, I will have a cat.
—Jeff
I like animals, too! There is a big farm near our home. Some chickens, ducks, a dog and three cows are on the farm. On weekends, I often go there to see the animals. They are my good friends. My favorite animal is Huzi. It's the dog. It's very smart. It can look after the farm.
—Peter
I also love animals. On weekends, I often go to the zoo with my parents. In the zoo, there are scary lions, tall giraffes and strong elephants. They come from different places. At home, I keep a pet rabbit. It is clean and quiet. It often washes its face with its front paws(爪子). I like watching it eating grass. When I am free, I always play with it.
——Sally
根据材料内容选择最佳答案。
31. Why does Jeff like cats
A. Because they are cute.
B. Because they are tall.
C. Because they can look after the farm.
D. Because they are interesting.
32. How many kinds of animals are there on the farm
A. Three. B. Four. C. Five. D. Six.
33. What's Peter's favorite animal on the farm
A. The duck. B. The cow. C. The dog. D. The cat.
34. Where does Sally often go on weekends
A. To the farm. B. To the school. C. To the park. D. To the zoo.
35. Who has a pet rabbit
A. Peter. B. Jeff. C. Bob. D. Sally.
D
Hi, boys and girls. Welcome to our reading club. 36 Now please listen to me. 37 You must read five books every term. If you can't, I'm sorry that you have to leave. We have activities(活动) on Friday. Everyone must come on time. 38 If you can't come, you must tell us before Fridays. It's important to keep our club clean and tidy. 39 So don't bring your food here. The last rule: be careful(小心的) with the books. You can take the books back home and read. 40 That's all. Have a good time in our club. Thank you.
根据材料内容，从下面五个选项中选出能填入文中空缺处的最佳选项，使短文意思通顺、内容完整。
A. You can't eat in our club.
B. Don't be late.
C. Reading is a good habit.
D. We have some rules.
E. But remember not to make the books dirty.
三、完形填空(15 小题，每小题1分，共15分)
先通读短文，掌握其大意，然后从A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出一个可以填入相应空白处的最佳答案。
My name is Li Lei. I 41 a 12-year-old boy. I am studying in Yangguang Middle School. I'm in Class l, Grade 7. Every day I get to 42 at about 7:40. I am never late 43 school. I am 44 and good at all the subjects. My teachers say I am a good 45 .
I 46 in a beautiful neighborhood. There is a 47 in front of the neighborhood. There are lots of books in it. I like reading books very much, so I 48 go there. Next to the bookstore, there is a big supermarket. Every day many people 49 there.
There is a park 50 our neighborhood. Now you can see many flowers and trees in it, so it is very 51 . Sometimes, I go there 52 with my brother, because it's only 10 minutes' walk from our neighborhood.
Today is sundy . There are lots of people here. Look! Some are dancing, some are 53 songs. What are my brother and I doing We are watching 54 . That's very interesting.
Life is 55 . I love it very much.
41. A. am B. is C. are D. be
42. A. library B. school C. bank D. restaurant
43. A. to B. for C. with D. of
44. A. shy B. quiet C. hard-working D. polite
45. A. friend B. classmate C. student D. girl
46. A. play B. live C. study D. watch
47. A. hospital B. dining room C. post office D. bookstore
48. A. never B. often C. sometimes D. only
49. A. go shopping B. watch TV C. read books D. drink tea
50. A. near B. with C. on D. under
51. A. cheap B. beautiful C. expensive D. noisy
52. A. on foot B. by bike C. by bus D. by car
53. A. speaking B. singing C. looking D. reading
54. A. them B. him C. you D. us
55. A. small B. new C. big D. fun
四、语篇填空(15 小题，每小题1分，共15 分)
第一节 阅读短文，从方框中选择适当的词并用其正确形式填空，使短文通顺、意思完整。每空限填一词，每词限用一次。
It is Sunday morning. The weather is 56 and warm. My parents , my sister and I are all at home. My parents don't have 57 go to work. My sister and I don't have to go to 58 . We are all in the yard(院子). Look! My father 59 cleaning his bike. He often goes to work 60 bike. The bike ride takes him about ten minutes. My mother is 61 the flowers. The flowers make our yard very 62 . We all like the flowers. My sister is playing with a dog. It's 63 favorite pet. The dog is very smart. My mother likes it, too. She 64 takes the dog out for a walk after dinner. What am I doing I'm drawing. I like drawing very much. I want to 65 the art club at school.
It's a nice day and we're busy in the yard. We are very happy today!
第二节 阅读短文，根据语篇要求填空，使短文通顺、意思完整。每空限填一词。
My name is Linda. I'm from the USA and I'm thirteen. I'm a student in No. 1 Middle School. I like music very much. I can play the guitar and the piano. I am good 66 playing them and I'm in the school art club.
John and Michael 67 my brothers. They are students, too. 68 we aren't in the same school. They like sports. John plays soccer very well. Michael plays ping-pong very well. I am not good at sports. They help me 69 sports after school.
We live in London with our parents now. My mother is an English teacher and my father is 70 musician. I love my family.
五、补全对话(5 小题，每小题2分，共10分)
根据下面的对话情景，在每个空白处填上一个适当的句子，使对话的意思连贯、完整。
A: Hi, Lucy. Long time no see.
B:Hi, Bob.
A:71.
B: My weekend was great.
A:72.
B: On Saturday morning I played tennis in the gym(体育馆), and on Sunday morning I went to the zoo.
A: Did you see elephants in the zoo
B: Sure, I did. I like elephants.
A: Why do you like them
B:73. .
A: Hmm, look, is that your sister
B: No, she isn't.
A:74.
B: Now, she's really tall. And she has long hair.
A:By the way(随便问一下), are there any rules in your school
B:75. . For example, we can't run in the hallways and can't be late for class.
A: Wow, it's six o'clock now. Let's go home.
B:OK. Good-bye.
六、书面表达 (共20分)
几年下来，相信你已经积累了不少英语知识！现在请用英语描述一下你的日常生活。
提示词: get up, brush teeth, eat breakfast
要求：1.文中不得出现真实姓名和校名；
2.词数70左右，开头和结尾已给出，不计入总词数。
I usually get up
This is my day. What about yours
参 考 答 案
2023—2024 学年第二学期期末学业质量监测
七年级 英语
一、听力理解 (20 小题，每小题1分，共20分)
1 ~5 BABCA 6~10 BABCB 11~15 BBCAC 16~20 CADBE
二、阅读理解(20小题，每小题2分，共40分)
21 ~25 ACCBC 26 ~30 AABAD 31 ~35 ABCDD 36 ~40 DCBAE
三、完形填空(15 小题，每小题1分，共15分)
41 ~45 ABBCC 46 ~50 BDBAA 51 ~55 BABAD
四、语篇填空(15 小题，每小题1分，共15分)
第一节
56. sunny 57. to 58. school 59. is 60. by
61. watering 62. beautiful 63. her 64. often 65. join
第二节
66. at 67. are 68. But 69. with 70. a
五、补全对话(5 小题，每小题2分，共10分)
71. How was your weekend
72. What did you do /Where did you go
73. Because they are cute /Because they are friendly /Because they are interesting /...
74. What does she look like
75. Yes, there are /Sure /Of course /Yes /. ..
六、书面表达(共20 分)略
评分标准：
一、听力理解 第1~20题，每小题1分。凡与答案不符的均不给分。
二、阅读理解 第21~40题，每小题2分。凡与答案不符的均不给分。
三、完形填空 第41~55题，每小题1分。凡与答案不符的均不给分。
四、语篇填空 第56~70题，每小题1分。凡与答案不符的均不给分。(答案都写成一样的不给分)
五、补全对话
第71~75题，每小题2分。句中大小写错误，每两个扣0.5分。单词拼写错误，每两个扣1分。答案不唯一。如果考生写出的句子符合英语表达习惯，且上下文意思连贯，无错误，应当给分。
六、书面表达，20分。
1)评分原则
(1)本题总分为20分，按4个档次给分。
(2)评分时，先根据文章的内容和语言初步确定其所属档次，然后以该档次的要求来衡量，确定或调整档次，最后给分。
(3)词数少于40的，从总分中减去2分。
(4)评分时，应注意的主要内容为：内容要点、应用词汇和语法结构的丰富性和准确性及上下文的连贯性。
(5)拼写与标点符号是语言准确性的一个方面，评分时，应视其对交际的影响程度予以考虑。英、美拼写及词汇用法均可接受。
(6)如书写较差以至影响交际，将其分数降低一个档次。
2)各档次的给分范围和要求
第四档 完成了试题规定的任务。 一覆盖所有内容要点。 一应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。 一语法结构或词汇方面应用基本准确，些许错误主要是因尝试较复杂语法结构或词汇所致。 一有效地使用了语句间的连接成分，使全文结构紧凑。 达到了预期的写作目的。
16~20分
第三档 基本完成了试题规定的任务。 一虽漏掉一些内容，但覆盖所有主要内容。 一应用的语法结构和词汇能满足任务的要求。 一有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，但不影响理解。 一应用简单的语句间连接成分，使全文内容连贯。 整体而言，基本达到了预期的写作目的。
11~15分
第二档 未恰当完成试题规定的任务。 一漏掉或未描述清楚一些主要内容，写了一些无关内容。 一语法结构单调，词汇项目有限。 一有一些语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响了对写作内容的理解。 一较少使用语句间的连接成分，内容缺少连贯性。 信息未能清楚地传达给读者。
6~10分
第一档 未完成试题规定的任务。 一明显遗漏主要内容，写了一些无关内容，原因可能是未理解试题要求。 一语法结构单调，词汇项目有限。 一较多语法结构或词汇方面的错误，影响对写作内容的理解。 —缺乏语句间的连接成分，内容不连贯。 信息未能传达给读者。
1~5分
0分 未能传达给读者任何信息：内容太少，无法评判；写的内容均与所要求内容无关或所写内容无法看清。
附：听力材料
第一节 听下面5段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话读两遍。
1. M: What club do you want to join, Ann
W: I want to join the chess club. I can play chess.
2. M: Is this park across from a supermarket
W: No. It's across from a school.
3. W:Tom, what does Mike look like
M:He is strong and tall, but his eyes are small.
4. W: Don't eat in the classroom.
M:Sorry, Ms. Li. I won't do that again.
5. W: Bill, what animals do you like best
M: I like tigers because they are interesting.
第二节 听下面几段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出最佳答案。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听下面一段对话，回答第6至第7两个小题。
W:Good morning, Jack! What are you doing
M:I'm doing my math homework.
W: Do you like math
M: No. My favorite subject is Chinese.
听下面一段对话，回答第8至第9两个小题。
M: Hello, Kate. Are you from Shanghai
W: No. I'm from Beijing.
M: What's the weather like in Beijing
W: It's cold now.
听下面一段独白，回答第10至第12 三个小题。
Mr. Green is a Chinese teacher. Every morning, he gets up early and then exercises. He rides his bike to work at7:20 a. m. He gets to school at 7:40 a. m. On weekends, he usually goes to the zoo with his students. He always asks his students to follow the zoo rules and not to give their food to the animals.
听下面一段对话，回答第13 至第15三个小题。
W: Bob, there is a new restaurant near our school. Do you want to go
M: Sure. I don't want to eat rice for lunch at school every day. I want to eat noodles.
W: What kind of noodles do you like
M: Beef noodles. What about you, Linda
W:I like beef noodles, too.
M:How do we get to the restaurant
W: It's not far from our school. Let's go on foot.
第三节 听下面一篇短文，根据所听内容将下面五幅图片排序。短文读两遍。
I had a really busy weekend. On Saturday morning, I visited the zoo. In the afternoon, I went shopping with my mum. At night, I read an interesting storybook at home. On Sunday morning, I did my homework. It was a little difficult. In the afternoon, I played soccer with my friends in the park. At night, I took a walk with my parents. What a busy weekend!
听力到此结束！

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