秦皇岛市第三中学 2025 - 2026 学年度第一学期
第一次月考 高二 英语试卷 A
试题说明：
1. 考试时间 120 分钟，满分 150 分。
2. 作答前，考生务必将自己的班级、姓名、考场座位号填写在答题卡上。
3. 作答时，务必将答案写在答题卡上。写在本试卷及草稿纸上无效。
第Ⅰ卷（选择题）
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分 30 分）
第一节（共 5 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 7.5 分）
听下面 5 段对话。每段对话后有一个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。
听完每段对话后，你都有 10 秒钟的时间来回答有关小题和阅读下一小题。每段对话仅读一遍。
1. Whom is the woman talking with
A. A tailor. B. A policeman. C. A shop assistant.
2. What will the weather be like
A. Sunny B. Rainy. C. Cloudy.
3. What does the woman think of the film
A. Good. B. Disappointing. C. Confusing.
4. What was the boy doing before the conversation
A. Playing football.
B. Playing with a ruler.
C. Doing his homework.
5. Where does the woman probably work
A. In a bank. B. In a hotel. C. In a restaurant.
第二节（共 15 小题；每小题 1.5 分，满分 22.5 分）
听下面 5 段对话或独白。每段对话或独白后有几个小题，从题中所给的 A、B、C 三个选项中选出最佳选项。听每段对话或独白前，你将有时间阅读各个小题，每小题 5 秒钟；听完后，各小题将给出 5 秒钟的作答时间。每段对话或独白读两遍。
听第 6 段材料，回答第 6、7 题。
6. What kind of book does the woman want
A. A book about travel.
B. A book about writing.
C. A book about computers.
7. How will the woman look for the book upstairs
A. By title. B. By year. C. By author.
听第 7 段材料，回答第 8 至 10 题。
8. Why did the man's neighbor move some furniture
A. She didn't want all her furniture.
B. She was having her kitchen repaired.
C. She was just moving into the building.
9. What did the man suggest his neighbor do
A. Call her friends for help.
B. Find room for her furniture.
C. Put an advertisement online.
10. Who finally got the table and cupboard
A. A charity. B. A homeless man. C. The man himself.
听第 8 段材料，回答第 11 至 13 题。
11. Where did the man sit in the 8:00 class
A. By the door. B. Near the blackboard. C. By the window.
12. What can we learn about the woman
A. She knows the man well.
B. She likes math very much.
C. She had a bad night's sleep.
13. When will the man probably take his math next term
A. At 8:00 am. B. At 3:00 pm. C. At 8:00 pm.
听第 9 段材料，回答第 14 至 16 题。
14. What does the man regret
A. Majoring in journalism.
B. Working as a journalist.
C. Dropping the writing course.
15. What is Sarah
A. An editor. B. A journalist. C. A tour guide.
16. What does the woman mean in the end
A. She can help the man.
B. She gets a new job.
C. She can hire the man.
听第 10 段材料，回答第 17 至 20 题。
17. How many foreign students are visiting the school
A.20. B.27. C.35.
18. Why does the school organize the music week
A. To make foreign students love pop songs.
B. To help foreign students enjoy their time.
C. To exchange ideas about different cultures.
19. When should students sign up for the activities
A. No later than September 15.
B. At the beginning of September.
C. In the last week of September.
20. Where will the music week be held
A. In the library.
B. In he garden.
C. In the school hall.
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分 50 分）
第一节（共 15 小题：每小题 2.5 分，满分 37.5 分） 阅读下列短文，从每题所给的 A、B、C、D 四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
At a summer camp, while you may have a long list of things to do during the day, you also need some evening activities.
Night Hikes
Night hikes are a fun evening activity for summer campers, especially older ones. Take a guided night hike, allowing yourself to experience nature in a different setting. Make sure that you wear appropriate clothes and always follow appointed paths. Plan the hike to ensure that you can return safely before it gets too late in the evening.
Movie Nights
Set up a screen and projector outdoors, and have a movie night under the stars. Prepare blankets, popcorn, and a comfortable spot for yourself to spread out and get comfortable. You should also consider other forms of seating, including chairs and picnic tables. It's also a good idea to check the forecast. If there is rain, have alternative indoor summer camp activities.
Campfire Stories
Gather around a campfire for storytelling. The goal is to entertain and help campers bond. Select stories that suit the age and interests of your audience. You can also share experiences and horror stories. However, speaking aloud around the campfire is sometimes a struggle. Prepare some familiar stories in advance.
Campfire Rhythms
Instead of stories, you may prefer campfire rhythms. Bring out the guitars, drums, and other instruments for a beautiful evening. You can perform traditional camp songs or learn something new for the evening. The easiest option is to select a variety of songs that cater to all ages and musical tastes.
21. What should campers consider before taking night hikes
A. Dress and security. B. Bonding and entertainment.
C. Audience's age and interests. D. Story selection and preparation.
22. What can be learned about movie nights
A. They require attention to the weather.
B. They are more popular than campfire stories.
C. They take place in an indoor screening room.
D. They offer various forms of free food services.
23. Which of the following suits campers enjoying music most
A. Night hikes. B. Movie nights. C. Campfire stories. D. Campfire rhythms.
B
My son's swim coach requested all parents of fifth-grade swimmers to take part in a mini-competition. I was so nervous to race. I carefully climbed up and took my position above the clear water. A few seconds later, the coach blew her whistle (口哨) and we were off—off on the longest 50-meter swim I can ever remember.
While I couldn't see or hear my son specifically, I knew he and his teammates were at the sides of the pool cheering the parents on. "Come on, Mom! Go, Dad!"
Not wanting to let down my son, I tried to kick harder and move my arms faster. But it felt like I was fighting the water, slowing down with every stroke (划水动作) I took.
I was happy to reach the side of the pool and for the race to be over. 50 meters is a long way when you're working hard to prove yourself. My son's smile was broad and bright. He gave me a high five and said, "Great job, Mom!"
Not one of those young swimmers turned away in anger or disappointment at the end of the parents' swim. That pool area was filled with a lot of wet hugs, tons of laughter, and a whole lot of pride.
This experience taught me a lesson I never forgot. Maybe doing something that pushes us will help us remember that with each new chapter of our children's lives they will run into new difficulties, too. Maybe what our kids need is our cheering them on, and then giving them a smile and a hug for their efforts. Maybe they need to know we don't care about winners and losers and that we're proud of them for entering the race, for facing their fears,and for diving in.
24. The author felt ______ before the race.
A. happy B. proud C. angry D. nervous
25. When the parents tried to finish the race, their kids ______.
A. were cheering the parents on B. turned away in disappointment
C. were having a language lesson D. worked hard to prove themselves
26. When the race was over, the author's son ______.
A. dived into the water B. felt angry about her
C. gave her a high five D. laughed at her
27. What can the author learn from the experience according to the last paragraph
A. Children need parents' love and support.
B. Parents can perform better than children.
C. Parents don't need to face their fears.
D. Children never care about winners and losers.
C
Most people feel sleepy and tired in the early afternoon, typically between 1 pm and 4 pm. This isn't just due to a heavy lunch. It is due to the fact that our internal body clock, or circadian rhythm, creates cycles of wakefulness and sleepiness throughout the day. To fight against the sleepiness and tiredness, a nap (打盹) is usually recommended.
But napping too long may result in waking up feeling worse than before. Studies show that once a nap extends beyond 30 minutes, the brain enters the so-called slow-wave sleep. If people are waken up from a slow-wave sleep, they usually feel sleepier and more tired for up to an hour. It can lead to serious consequences if they have to perform safety-critical tasks or make important decisions during that period of time.
For some, napping is essential. Athletes often include it into their training schedules to speed up muscle recovery and improve performances. Similarly, people who regularly struggle to get enough sleep at night — whether due to work, parenting, or other demands — may benefit from it to make up for their sleep loss.
Despite the benefits, napping isn't for everyone. Age, lifestyle, and sleep patterns all influence whether it helps or hurts. Done wisely, it can be a powerful way to recharge the brain, improve concentration, and support mental and physical health. Done poorly, it might be the reason why you're staring at the ceiling at midnight. In addition, relying on it, instead of improving nighttime sleep, is a short-term fix rather than a sustainable solution.
To nap effectively, timing and environment matter. Keep naps between 10 and 20 minutes. The ideal time is before 2 pm-napping too late can push back the body's natural sleep schedule. The best naps happen in a cool, dark and quiet environment, similar to nighttime sleep conditions. Eye covers and noise-canceling headphones can help, particularly for those who nap in bright or noisy settings.
28. What determines the cycles of wakefulness and sleepiness
A. Diet. B. Age. C. Lifestyle D. Circadian rhythm.
29. What can we infer about the slow-wave sleep according to paragraph 2
A. It usually lasts half an hour. B. It should not be interrupted.
C. It can lead to serious problems. D. It makes people feel sleepier.
30. What is paragraph 3 mainly about
A. The need of napping for some people.
B. The limitation of mid-day naps.
C. Timing and environment for quality naps.
D. Consequences of unwise napping.
31. What are people required to do to have effective naps
A. Put on eye covers before taking naps.
B. Listen to soft music during naps.
C. Keep naps between 10 and 20 minutes.
D. Take naps between 1 pm and 4 pm.
D
Will chatbots that can generate fascinating articles destroy education as we know it
New York City's Department of Education banned (禁止) the use of ChatGPT from school owned networks and devices, arguing that while it provides quick answers, it does not build critical thinking skills, which are necessary for academic and lifelong success." However, banning AI tools from the classroom is a short-sighted response. Instead, we must find a way in which such technologies combine well with, rather than replace, student thinking.
Banning ChatGPT is impossible in practice. Students will find ways around it, which will cause a further defensive response from educators. It's hard to believe that a close race between digitally fluent teenagers and their educators will end in a decisive victory for the latter. In fact, chat-bots may well speed up a trend toward valuing critical thinking. In a world where computers can fluently answer any question, students — and the rest of us — need to learn to ask better questions and critically evaluate AI-generated responses.
The key challenge is ensuring students still engage in deep thinking. GPT often generates text that is fluent and "reasonable" — but wrong. So using it requires the same mental heavy lifting that writing does: forming an opinion, creating an outline, picking which points to explain and which to drop, and looking for supporting facts. GPT and similar AI technology can help with those tasks, but they can't — at least in the near future — put them all together. Writing a good essay still requires lots of human thought and work. Indeed, writing is thinking, and authentically good writing is authentically good thinking.
One approach is to focus on the process as much as the end result. For instance, teachers might require — and assess — four drafts of an essay. After all, as John McPhee, the famous writer, said, "The essence of the process is revision." Each draft gets feedback from the teacher, from peers or even from a chatbot. Then the students produce the next draft, and so on.
Will AI one day outperform human beings not just in knowing but in thinking Maybe, but for now, we must think for ourselves. Like any tool, GPT is an enemy of thinking only if we fail to find ways to make it our partner.
32. How does the author feel about the ban
A. Favourable. B. Irresponsible. C. Unwise. D. Necessary.
33. Why is it impossible to ban ChatGPT in practice
A. Because students will likely find solutions. B. Because people treasure critical thinking.
C. Because ChatGPT will keep developing. D. Because schools will defend the ban.
34. How does the author explain his idea in Paragraph 4
A. By quoting others. B. By presenting figures. C. By giving examples. D. By showing similarities.
35. What might be the best title of the text
A. Is GPT a process or a result
B. Will GPT outperform students
C. Are chatbots becoming a new trend
D. Will chatbots destroy education
第二节 (共 5 小题: 每小题 2.5 分, 满分 12.5 分) 阅读下面短文, 从短文后的选项中选出能填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有 两项为多余选项。
How to Improve Handwriting
Why good handwriting is important Whatever we write, it should be written in a good and impressive way because it leaves a positive impression on a reader. 36 You are advised to do as follows.
If you are writing something, you should have the proper grip (紧握) while writing. First of all, hold the pen properly and then start writing it 37 After knowing the mistake just try to correct it. At the beginning, you can take your time writing the paragraph, but one week after completing that you should increase your speed. And as you start practicing, the grip will be set.
Practice shapes the students who are having problems writing the letters. They should practice shapes. Practicing shapes will play a vital role in improving your handwriting. It doesn't matter whether your writing is simple or cursive (连笔的). 38
Whenever you write, write with the proper flow. For example, if you are writing one paragraph, you should touch the words you are writing properly to the line. 39
40 While practicing, you need to give proper gaps, and increase your speed. Do practice a lot!
A. You need to practice daily.
B. Don't be afraid of making mistakes.
C. The way of writing should be proper.
D. You need to find a good way to write the words.
E. Learning how to make your handwriting good is not that hard.
F. It should not happen that your words are going below or above the line.
G. Observe the way of writing each letter, and see where you are making mistakes.
第三部分语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（共15小题：每小题1分，满分15分）
Growing up, I spent a lot of time outdoors. At 16, I decided to go to Antarctica alone. When I told my parents, they 41 I had already made up my mind. My parents are great role models. Many parents tell their children to wait until they're older to 42 their dreams. But if you wait too long you'll have other 43.
The journey is 1,130 km. I had to increase my body weight to 44 the supplies on my sledge (雪桶), so I did a lot of 45 training to gain muscle. To 46, I watched documentaries and read every book on the subject. To keep me 47 on the trip, I had podcasts and music. But, the further I went, the more I enjoyed just experiencing the 48.
On the 49 days, I was in snow up to my knees and could only go 8.5 km in 10 hours. Then, when I arrived on the plateau (高原), I really felt the 50 and cold air affecting my lungs. Towards the end, my lungs were painful, and I 51 to breathe.
Before finishing, I didn't allow myself to think much, because I had to be 52. So when I arrived, fifty days after 53, it was fantastic to enjoy what I had achieved, though I also felt a slight emptiness because my 54 for so long had been about planning this project. I hope one day I will 55 and do a bigger expedition.
41.A. suspected B. realized C. expected D. proved
42.A. pursue B. interpret C. share D. change
43.A. complaints B. regrets C. advantages D. commitments
44.A. consume B. buy C. pull D. secure
45.A. character B. rescue C. strength D. management
46.A. reflect B. prepare C. celebrate D. entertain
47.A. distracted B. exhausted C. alarmed D. occupied
48.A. silence B. wildness C. coldness D. chaos
49.A. longest B. hardest C. darkest D. quickest
50.A. thin B. fresh C. stuffy D. earthy
51.A. wished B. battled C. ceased D. learned
52.A. proud B. cheerful C. safe D. focused
53.A. picking up B. bringing in C. setting off D. turning down
54.A. nature B. trick C. trip D. life
55.A. reserve B. fear C. hatch D. skip
第二节（共10小题：每小题1.5分，满分15分）阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
Chinese tea plays 56 important role in people's daily life, both at home and abroad. Millions of people want 57 (have) a cup of tea at the start of their morning.
China is the homeland of tea. It's one of the 58 (big) tea producers in the world. It
mainly 59(produce) six kinds of tea — green tea, black tea, Oolong tea, dark tea, white tea, and reprocessed tea.
Drinking tea first 60(become) popular in the Tang and Song Dynasties. According to the records, it probably started in the southwest of China. In Yunnan, there are still some wild tea trees that are over 1,000 years old. They are 61(real) uncommon and valuable.
According to a Chinese legend (传说), tea was discovered 5,000 years ago by Shen Nong. Shen Nong was the first Chinese herbal (草药) doctor. He was famous 62 his work to help many 63 (patient). He himself tasted lots of herbs. People could have safe medicine just because of 64 he did. He discovered tea when he traveled to high mountains and collected 65 (difference) plants. Thanks to him, one of the world's favorite drinks was invented.
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分 40 分）
第一节 单词填空（满分 30 分，每小题 1.5 分）
66. Sometimes, if the weather （预报）is good，my friends and I drive to the countryside for a weekend break.
67. The old man（终止）breathing the night before.
68. In the (absent) of fresh air, people may start to feel sick. So make sure you open the windows while working.
69. The (library) saved the rare books from the fire.
70. We currently have a 165 - sqm (luxury) furnished apartment for rent.
71. Stores spend more and more on（犯罪）prevention every year.
72. With all the information （可获得的），they found the hotel in the mountain easily.
738. Only when you have a good （掌握）of vocabulary will reading no longer be your obstacle.
74. As we were playing, I looked up saw Daddy in the (distant).
75. We'll give (prefer) to children and the aged.
76. We can （推断）the meaning of the word in the context.
77. (gradual), things headed towards the better.
78. This magazine, (found)in 1981, is one of the most popular magazines.
79. He (gentle) shook the driver awake and they set off.
80. If you've been betrayed, you are the victim of your （状况）.
81. It is reported that an expressway from Lanzhou to Kunming is construction.
82. My eldest son, work takes him the whole world, is in New York at the moment.
83. Many lessons are available online, from students can choose for free.
84. Mr White will come to the party on Sunday, he promised to every one of us.
85. Many young people, most of were well - educated, headed for remote regions to chase their dreams.
第二节 作文（10 分）
假设你是红星中学高三学生李华。你校交换生 Jim 打算暑假假出京旅游，发来邮件请你推荐一座中国历史文化名城。请给他回复邮件，内容包括：
1. 你的推荐；2. 推荐理由；3. 食宿建议。
注意：1. 词数 100 左右；
2. 可以适当增加细节，以使行文连贯。
秦皇岛市第三中学2025-2026学年度第一学期第一次月考
高二英语试卷A参考答案
第Ⅰ卷（选择题）
第一部分 听力（共两节，满分30分）
题号 1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
答案 C B A A B B C B C A
题号 11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
答案 A C B C A A C B A B
第二部分 阅读（共两节，满分50分）
第一节（共15小题，每小题2.5分，满分37.5分）
题号 21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30 31 32 33 34 35
答案 A A D D A C A D B A C C A D D
第二节（七选五，共5小题，每小题2.5分，满分12.5分）
题号 36 37 38 39 40
答案 E G A F C
第三部分 语言运用（共两节，满分30分）
第一节（完形填空，共15小题，每小题1分，满分15分）
题号 41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50 51 52 53 54 55
答案 B A D C C B D B B A B D C D C
第二节（语法填空，共10小题，每小题1.5分，满分15分）
56.an；
57.to have；
58.biggest；
59.produces；
60.became；
61.really；
62.for；
63.patients；
64.what；
65.different。
第四部分 写作（共两节，满分40分）
第一节 单词填空（每小题1.5分，满分30分）
66.forecast；
67.ceased；
68.absence；
69.librarian；
70.luxuriously；
71.crime；
72.available；
mand；
74.distance；
75.preference；
76.infer；
77.Gradually；
78.founded；
79.gently；
80.situation；
81.under；
82.whose；
83.which；
84.which；
85.whom。
第二节 作文（满分10分）
参考范文：
Dear Jim,
Im glad to hear you plan to travel outside Beijing this summer. I strongly recommend Xian, a famous historical and cultural city.
Xian is home to world-famous sites like the Terracotta Army and the Ancient City Wall, where you can feel the charm of ancient Chinese civilization. It also has delicious local food, such as roujiamo (meat sandwich) and mutton soup.
For accommodation, I suggest a traditional courtyard hotel near the city wall—it’s cozy and lets you experience local life. For meals, try the Muslim Street, where you can taste various snacks.
Hope you have a wonderful trip!
Yours,
Li Hua

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