2024—2025学年度（下）学校课程实施水平检测
八年级英语
注意事项：
1.全卷分A卷和B卷；A卷满分100分，B卷满分50分；考试时间120分钟。
2.在答题前，考生务必将自己的准考证号、姓名涂写在答题卷上。
3.选择题部分必须使用2B铅笔填涂;非选择题部分必须使用0.5毫米黑色签字笔书写，字体工整、笔迹清楚。
4.请按照题号在答题卡上各题目对应的答题区域内作答，超出答题区域书写的答案无效。
5.保持答题卡清洁，不得折叠、污染、破损等。
A卷（共100分）
第一部分 听力（共25小题；计30分）
一、听句子，根据所听到的内容选择正确答语。每小题念两遍。（共5小题；每小题1分，计5分）
1. A. I hope so, too. B. He’s fine, too. C. Good, you’re right.
2. A. Sounds great! B. You’re welcome! C. Best wishes!
3. A. No, I love it. B. Yes, so can I. C. Sure, here you are.
4. A. They’re so helpful. B. That’s a great idea. C. Don’t worry about it.
5. A. Don’t say so. B. No problem. C. No wonder.
二、听句子，选择与所听句子内容相符的图片。每小题念两遍。（共5小题；每小题1分，计分5分）
A B C D E
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
三、听对话，根据对话内容及问题选择正确答案。每小题念两遍。（共10小题；每小题1分，计10分）
听第1段对话，回答第11、12小题。
11. Where is David now
A. At school. B. At home. C. In the hospital.
12. What’s the matter with David
A. He hurt his foot. B. He got a stomachache. C. He had a cold.
听第2段对话，回答第13、14小题。
13. What will Peter do later
A. Sweep the floor. B. Do the dishes. C. Practice the violin.
14. Who is the show for
A. Homeless kids. B. Poor people. C. Sick children.
听第3段对话，回答第15至17小题。
15. What is Kate
A. A student. B. A singer. C. A policewoman.
16. When did Kate see the little boy
A. When she was running back home.
B. When she was waiting for a policeman.
C. When she was on her way to the subway station.
17. How did the man feel at the beginning of the conversation
A. Stupid. B. Worried. C. Angry.
听第4段对话，回答第18至20小题。
18. Who is visiting Chengdu for the first time
A. The woman. B. The man. C. The man’s father.
19. Which of the following does the man recommend most
A. Kuanzai Alley. B. People’s Park. C. Chengdu Research Base.
20 What’s the probable relationship between the two speakers
A. Guide and tourist. B. Host and guest. C. Brother and sister.
四、听短文，根据短文内容完成图表中所缺信息。短文念三遍。（共5小题；每小题2分，计分10分）
The Yangtze River: China’s Mother River
Category（类别） Details
Geography ●It’s the longest river in Asia, about 21 kilometers long. ●It’s from Tibet to the East China Sea.
Importance ●It provides water for farming. People 22 it for fishing and tourism. ●Both ancient and 23 cities grew and developed because of the river. ●It’s home to unique（独特）but endangered animals. ●It’s 24 to travel through China's past and present, listen to the stories of change.
Summary ●It’s a symbol of China’s history, culture, and natural 25 .
第二部分 语言知识运用（共20小题；计40分）
五、阅读下面短文，从方框内的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。（共5小题；每小题2分，计分10分）
阅读下面短文，从方框内的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
A. came up with B. ever since C. achieved his dream D. no longer E. showed a great interest
Have you ever dreamed of creating something amazing that could bring joy to millions of people Walt Disney did.
When Walt Disney was four, he ____1____ in art. He copied cartoons from his father to improve his skills. By the age of seven, he thought he was ____2____ a child and sold his drawings to raise money for his family.
When Walt was young, on a train to Hollywood, he ____3____ the amazing idea of Mickey. He and his brother created Steamboat Willie, the first all-sound cartoon, which became surprisingly popular. Years later, in 1937, Disney ____4____, it was because of his first full-length animated film Snow White and the Seven Dwarfs.
One day, while watching his daughters playing in a park, he imagined a theme park where parents and children could enjoy time together. As a wild dreamer, he couldn’t stop thinking about that ____5____ then. This dream finally came true in 1954 when the first Disneyland opened in Anaheim, California.
六、补全对话。根据对话内容，从方框中选出最佳选项补全对话。（共5小题；每小题2分，计10分）
根据对话内容，从选项中选出最佳选项补全对话。
A: Hi, Steve. What’s your favorite book
B: The Old Man and the Sea, a classic book.
A: ____6____ It won the Pulitzer Prize, right
B: Yes. Have you read it yet
A: Not yet. ____7____
B: Hmm ... The main story is a fisherman who catches fish on the sea.
A: ____8____ Does he succeed
B: Finally, yes. But sharks eat the fish on his way home.
A: What a poor man! ____9____
B: Er...the fisherman fights hard. It taught us not to give up.
A: Oh, I can’t wait to read it. ____10____
B: Sure. I’ve already finished reading it.
A. Sounds fun.
B. I’ve heard of it.
C. What is it about
D. Can you lend it to me
E. But what makes it a fantastic book
七、完形填空 阅读下面的短文，根据短文内容，从A、B、C三个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。（共10小题；每小题2分，计20分。）
阅读下面的短文，根据短文内容，从A、B、C三个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Once there was a 45-year-old woman paying for her food. The shop owner asked how she was doing. The woman answered sadly, “Not so ____11____, I just lost my job. I don’t know how I can live on.”
My ____12____ hurt. I wanted to help but didn’t know how. When I ____13____ my car, I met the woman again. I remembered something in my wallet.
“Excuse me,” I said, “It sounds like you’re going through a really hard time ____14____. I’m so sorry. I’d like to ____15____ you something.” I passed her a small card from my wallet.
When the woman read the ____16____ words on the card, she began to cry and said, “You don’t know how much this ____17____ to me.” “Would it be OK to give you a hug ” To be ____18____, that’s all I could say at that time.
After that, I got into my car and began to cry, too. The words on the ____19____ are “You Matter.”
A few weeks earlier, a friend gave me a similar card as ____20____ for my work. When I read it, I really felt warm. So I ordered my own box of “You Matter” cards and started sharing them.
11. A. bad B. good C. difficult
12. A. head B. face C. heart
13. A. fixed up B. look through C. walked towards
14. A. nowadays B. once upon a time C. just now
15. A. lend B. offer C. copy
16. A. two B. three C. four
17. A. passes B. means C. belongs
18. A. unbelievable B. clever C. honest
19. A. car B. card C. wallet
20. A. encouragement B. achievement C. development
第三部分 阅读理解。（共15小题；计30分）
八、阅读下列短文，根据短文内容选择最佳选项。（共15小题；每小题2分，计30分）
A
Welcome! The Scientist in the Future If you are interested in science and technology, why not come to our museum in Guanghua city It covers an area of 11,000 square meters. It can help you to explore (探索) more secrets about the world, even artificial intelligence (人工智能) and universe (宇宙). So far, more than 500,000 people have paid a visit since it was open in 2020. Do you want to be next More fun is waiting for you! From 9:00 a.m. to 4:30 p.m., Wednesday to Sunday. Not allow visitors by 4:00 p.m. Ticket: Free to all, with ID card. Book tickets, call 028-82727629. For more information, visit www..
21. What may be filled in the
A. Guanghua Intelligence Museum.
B. Guanghua Earth and Universe Museum.
C Guanghua Science and Technology Museum.
22. How long has the museum been on
A. For 5 years. B. For 5 days. C. For 7 and a half hours.
23. How many exhibition (展览) halls are there in the museum
A. Three. B. Four. C. Five.
24. If you want to know something about wildlives, which of the following can you visit
A. The Earth and universe. B. Design and intelligence. C. Life and development.
25. What can you do when you visit this museum
A. Get in before four o’clock.
B. Buy a ticket with your ID card.
C. Give a call to get more information.
B
Dear David, I found that when I became a teenager, I started to get upset more often. When it is rainy outside, I feel upset; when my friend gets better grades than me, I feel upset; when my mother’s flowers die, I also feel very upset. What should I do Mia
Hi Mia, Thank you for sharing your feelings. It’s OK to get upset sometimes, especially as a teenager. Our bodies change, and we feel things strongly. Even the weather can change how we feel. Sunny days can make us happy, but rainy days, sad. To feel better, get busy with things you enjoy. Hobbies like painting or making things can help. Exercise is also great. Get some fresh air, go for a walk or visit a park. Seeing beautiful things can make you feel better. Remember, if we keep busy and talk to people, we can feel better. Even though we can’t always control our feelings, we can choose how to deal with (处理) them. Just by writing in, you’re already taking a step to feel better. David
26. What’s the matter with Mia
A. She’s become a teenager. B. She has more and more stress. C. She studies worse than her friend.
27. Who offered help
A. A teenager. B. Mia’s mother. C. David.
28. Why do teenagers get upset easier
A. Because they feel things strongly.
B. Because they don’t like to talk to people.
C. Because the weather can change how they feel.
29. What is the first step in the reply
A. Showing thankfulness. B. Telling the reasons. C. Giving advice.
30. How did Mia try to feel better
A. By going for a walk. B. By talking to others. C. By seeing beautiful things.
C
A cute, fuzzy toy called Labubu, with big teeth and pointy ears, has become a huge hit around the world! It’s made by Pop Mart, a Chinese toy company.
This shows how Chinese companies are changing. In the past, China mostly made simple, cheap toys for foreign brands. Now, companies like Pop Mart are creating their own special characters and stories. People everywhere love Labubu not just as a toy, but for its unique design (设计) and feel. Young fans in big cities like New York, London, and Tokyo wait in long lines hoping to buy one.
Other Chinese toy companies are also succeeding globally. TOP TOY has over 280 stores worldwide, and 52TOYS’ sales grew massively—by 300% in Thailand last year. Chinese video games like “Genshin Impact” and the “Black Myth: Wukong” are also very popular overseas.
What Can We Learn Good ideas and unique designs (like Labubu or cool games) are loved everywhere. Being creative is important! Things that got ideas from Chinese stories and styles can appeal to the whole world. Be proud of your culture! Making your own new things (like Pop Mart’s characters or the “Wukong” game) is better than just copying others.
Labubu’s success teaches us that by using our imagination in school, believing in our own ideas and culture, and working hard to create original things, we can also make something amazing that people everywhere might love in the future. Keep learning and being creative!
31. What details about Labubu can we find in this passage
A. Its sale. B. Its appearance. C. Its owner.
32. Why does the writer say “Chinese companies are changing” in para. 2
A. Because they can make expensive toys now.
B. Because they mostly make toys for foreign young fans.
C. Because they can design and make their own characters.
33. Which picture can show the meaning of the underlined words grew massively
A. B. C.
34. What make Labubu and the companies successful
① Creativity is Powerful. ② Sale strategies work. ③ Culture Matters.
A. ①② B. ②③ C. ①③
35. Why does the writer write this passage
A. To tell us how successful Labubu is.
B. To tell us what we should learn and do.
C. To tell us how much Chinese companies have changed.
B卷（共50分）
一、短文填空从下面方框中选出10个单词，将其正确形式填入短文，使短文意思正确通顺（每词限用一次）。（共10小题；每小题1分，计10分）
从下面方框中选出10个单词，将其正确形式填入短文，使短文意思正确通顺 (每词限用一次)
against, certain, fit, night, object, offer, proper, strange, them, turn, weak, whatever
Have you wondered what it would be like to live in space The following will explain astronauts’ daily lives.
Food is necessary for humans, ____36____ the situation is. Astronauts would prepare lots of food when going into space and make sure to store it ____37____. They are trained to eat food in special ways. So far, the space station has ____38____ astronauts ovens to heat their meals. In the future, technology may offer more convenience.
After a long day at work, nothing is better than a good ____39____ sleep! Just like on the earth, in space, astronauts go to bed at a ____40____ time, then get up and prepare for work again. They usually sleep in small crew cabins (乘员舱). When going to sleep, they have to be in a sleeping bag so that they don’t float around or hit their bodies ____41____ something.
Exercise is also an important part. Astronauts’ bodies will become ____42____ without enough exercise. Every day, they must work out for two hours ____43____ the space environment. Taking weights on the earth may be hard. But taking the same ____44____ in space would be much easier. That means exercise equipment in space station has to be specially designed.
Living in space is not just all work and no play. There are also many ways for astronauts to enjoy ___45___, whether by looking out the window or playing with floating food. All the time makes the life in space amazing and special.
二、补全短文 根据短文内容，从短文后的A~F选项中，选出5个适当的选项补全短文。（共5小题；每小题1分，计5分）
根据短文内容，从短文后的A～F选项中，选出5个适当的选项补全短文。
I really like jazz, but I’m not an expert. Some people think it’s unusual because not many young people and teenagers listen to jazz. ____46____
When I was little, my dad introduced me to the music. He knew many different kinds of music, but he introduced me to jazz most. ____47____ He was happily tapping and humming jazz tunes when he drove. I only half-listened while playing my computer games.
____48____ I would say in 8th grade, when I decided to join the school jazz band (thanks, Dad). Every day after school, our band would meet for 45 minutes and play many tunes. That really opened my eyes to different types of jazz music. And I can tell you that jazz is much harder to play than concert band music. If you want to show your skills, you should join a jazz band.
____49____ Our school had two jazz bands, Jazz 1 and Jazz 2. Jazz 2 was for less able players, while Jazz 1 was the School’s flagship jazz band. It played at many events and took part in competitions. I was in Jazz 2 for my first two years and moved up to Jazz 1 in my third year.
Two years into college, my love for jazz has only grown. ____50____ I’ve even started my own column (专栏) on the genre. Thanks to jazz, I’ve become who I am today.
A. What’s your idea
B. So why do I love it
C. When did I really fall in love with jazz
D. Listening and playing are still part of my life.
E. I still have lots of memories of his introductions.
F. In high school, jazz kept to be one of my hobbies.
三、阅读表达（共10小题；每小题2分，计20分）
A.完成图表根据短文内容，完成图表格中所缺信息。（共5小题；每小题2分，计10分）
根据短文内容，完成图表格中所缺信息。
A Swedish slow TV program called “The Great Moose Migration” (大驼鹿迁徙) has become very popular. This slow TV series started in 2019 and features a livestream (直播) of moose migration. The program is organized by SVT, the Swedish national public broadcaster.
The idea for it came from Bergensbanen, a slow TV program in Norway. The seven-hour program about a train ride through snowy mountains and villages drew many people’s attention in 2009. Seeing how successful it is, Johan Erhag and Stefan Edlund, the producers (制片人) decided to create something like that.
Then they chose to film the moose migration after learning that groups of moose cross a river near Stockholm every year. The moose is Sweden’s largest animal, with about 300,000 of them in the country. A male moose can reach 210 centimetres at shoulder height and weigh 450 kilograms. However, moose are typically shy, and adult moose don’t like to live in groups. People don’t see them very often.
The first program drew nearly a million viewers’ attention, and by 2024, the number had risen to 9 million. This year it’s getting more popular. “The Great Moose Migration” began on April 15 and never stopped until May 4. It ran continuously for 24 hours a day, allowing viewers to watch the moose whenever they want. One Facebook fan page about the moose migration has grown to 78,000 members.
For hours at a time, not much happens on the livestream, but fans say that’s the beauty of it—it allows them to relax. Even the production team felt the peace in heart. “Everyone who works with it goes down in their normal stress,” one producer said, after hours of watching the quiet wilderness.
A Popular Slow TV Series— The Great Moose Migration
The start of it The ____51____ of a slow TV program in Norway led to the ideas of producing The Great Moose Migration.
The ____52____ of it * The livestream started in 2019 with nearly a million people watching. * In 2024, the production hit 9 million viewers. *This year, the program ran____53____ from April 15 to May 4. Fans on the internet had been over 78,000.
Reasons for loving to watch it * People felt new and fresh because they hardly see moose in life. * People felt relaxed when seeing the journey. * The production team felt ____54____ and less stressful when working.
Some facts about the moose * The moose is larger than the other animals in Sweden. * A male moose can reach 210 centimetres at shoulder height and 450 kilograms in weight. * The moose are shy and would like to stay ____55____.
B.任务型阅读根据短文内容，按要求回答问题。（共5小题；每小题2分，计10分）
根据短文内容，按要求回答问题。
Have you ever heard of an AED AED means Automated External Defibrillator (自动体外除颤器). When someone’s heart suddenly stops beating — an AED can restart it. This small medical machine is truly a life-saver.
Using an AED isn’t as hard as many people think! Using it includes just a few simple steps. First, turn on the AED. It will provide both voice and visual (视觉的) instructions (说明). Next, put the sticky pads on the person’s chest. Make sure to place them where the AED shows. These pads allow the AED to check whether the heart is working well. Then, move away and don’t touch the person until the AED gives another instruction. If the AED says “shock advised,” make sure no one is touching the person, then press the shock button. If not, follow the AED’s instructions for CPR (chest compressions) until the doctors arrive.
Actually, you can find an AED in many public places. In schools, you can usually find it near the gym or the school office. In shopping malls, check the information desks. At airports, look for it on the walls. It is usually marked with a heart symbol, making it easy to be found.
AEDs are important because in cases of a sudden heart stop, every second counts. With an AED, we can help save lives even before the doctors arrive. More and more places are getting AEDs, and more people are learning how to use them. This way, we can be ready to help if someone around us has a heart problem.
56. When do we need to use an AED
________________________________________________
57. What are the two types of instructions that an AED provides
________________________________________________
58. How many steps do people use an AED to save a person
________________________________________________
59. What have you learned from this passage besides (除外) when and how we use an AED
________________________________________________
60. According to the passage, what does the spirit of inventing AED show us
________________________________________________
四、书面表达（计15分）
61. 你校英语社团就“Should teenagers clear out old things ”这一话题开展讨论。请根据以下图示写一篇英语短文。
注意：1. 词数80左右。
2. 文中不得出现真实姓名和学校名称。
_______________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
2024—2025学年度（下）学校课程实施水平检测
八年级英语
注意事项：
1.全卷分A卷和B卷；A卷满分100分，B卷满分50分；考试时间120分钟。
2.在答题前，考生务必将自己的准考证号、姓名涂写在答题卷上。
3.选择题部分必须使用2B铅笔填涂;非选择题部分必须使用0.5毫米黑色签字笔书写，字体工整、笔迹清楚。
4.请按照题号在答题卡上各题目对应的答题区域内作答，超出答题区域书写的答案无效。
5.保持答题卡清洁，不得折叠、污染、破损等。
A卷（共100分）
第一部分 听力（共25小题；计30分）
一、听句子，根据所听到的内容选择正确答语。每小题念两遍。（共5小题；每小题1分，计5分）
1. A. I hope so, too. B. He’s fine, too. C. Good, you’re right.
2. A. Sounds great! B. You’re welcome! C. Best wishes!
3. A. No, I love it. B. Yes, so can I. C. Sure, here you are.
4. A. They’re so helpful. B. That’s a great idea. C. Don’t worry about it.
5. A. Don’t say so. B. No problem. C. No wonder.
二、听句子，选择与所听句子内容相符的图片。每小题念两遍。（共5小题；每小题1分，计分5分）
A B C D E
6. 7. 8. 9. 10.
三、听对话，根据对话内容及问题选择正确答案。每小题念两遍。（共10小题；每小题1分，计10分）
听第1段对话，回答第11、12小题。
11. Where is David now
A. At school. B. At home. C. In the hospital.
12. What’s the matter with David
A. He hurt his foot. B. He got a stomachache. C. He had a cold.
听第2段对话，回答第13、14小题
13. What will Peter do later
A. Sweep the floor. B. Do the dishes. C. Practice the violin.
14. Who is the show for
A. Homeless kids. B. Poor people. C. Sick children.
听第3段对话，回答第15至17小题。
15. What is Kate
A. A student. B. A singer. C. A policewoman.
16. When did Kate see the little boy
A. When she was running back home.
B. When she was waiting for a policeman.
C. When she was on her way to the subway station.
17. How did the man feel at the beginning of the conversation
A. Stupid. B. Worried. C. Angry.
听第4段对话，回答第18至20小题。
18. Who is visiting Chengdu for the first time
A. The woman. B. The man. C. The man’s father.
19. Which of the following does the man recommend most
A. Kuanzai Alley. B. People’s Park. C. Chengdu Research Base.
20. What’s the probable relationship between the two speakers
A. Guide and tourist. B. Host and guest. C. Brother and sister.
四、听短文，根据短文内容完成图表中所缺信息。短文念三遍。（共5小题；每小题2分，计分10分）
The Yangtze River: China’s Mother River
Category（类别） Details
Geography ●It’s the longest river in Asia, about 21 kilometers long. ●It’s from Tibet to the East China Sea.
Importance ●It provides water for farming. People 22 it for fishing and tourism. ●Both ancient and 23 cities grew and developed because of the river. ●It’s home to unique（独特）but endangered animals. ●It’s 24 to travel through China's past and present, listen to the stories of change.
Summary ●It’s a symbol of China’s history, culture, and natural 25 .
第二部分 语言知识运用（共20小题；计40分）
五、阅读下面短文，从方框内的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。（共5小题；每小题2分，计分10分）
【1~5题答案】
【答案】1. E 2. D
3. A 4. C
5. B
六、补全对话。根据对话内容，从方框中选出最佳选项补全对话。（共5小题；每小题2分，计10分）
【6~10题答案】
【答案】6. B 7. C 8. A 9. E 10. D
七、完形填空 阅读下面的短文，根据短文内容，从A、B、C三个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。（共10小题；每小题2分，计20分。）
【11~20题答案】
【答案】11. B 12. C 13. C 14. A 15. B 16. A 17. B 18. C 19. B 20. A
第三部分 阅读理解。（共15小题；计30分）
八、阅读下列短文，根据短文内容选择最佳选项。（共15小题；每小题2分，计30分）
A
【21~25题答案】
【答案】21. C 22. A 23. B 24. C 25. A
B
【26~30题答案】
【答案】26. B 27. C 28. A 29. A 30. B
C
【31~35题答案】
【答案】31. B 32. C 33. A 34. C 35. B
B卷（共50分）
一、短文填空从下面方框中选出10个单词，将其正确形式填入短文，使短文意思正确通顺（每词限用一次）。（共10小题；每小题1分，计10分）
【36~45题答案】
【答案】36. whatever
37. properly
38. offered
39. night’s
40. certain
41. against
42. weaker 43. to fit
44. object 45. themselves
二、补全短文 根据短文内容，从短文后的A~F选项中，选出5个适当的选项补全短文。（共5小题；每小题1分，计5分）
【46~50题答案】
【答案】46 B 47. E 48. C 49. F 50. D
三、阅读表达（共10小题；每小题2分，计20分）
A.完成图表根据短文内容，完成图表格中所缺信息。（共5小题；每小题2分，计10分）
【51~55题答案】
【答案】51. success
52. popularity
53. continuously
54. peaceful
55. alone
B.任务型阅读根据短文内容，按要求回答问题。（共5小题；每小题2分，计10分）
【56~60题答案】
【答案】56. When someone’s heart suddenly stops beating.
57. Both voice and visual instructions.
58. Four. 59. Where we can find it and the importance of the AED.
60. It shows the importance of making life-saving technology accessible to everyone.
四、书面表达（计15分）
【61题答案】
【答案】例文
Recently, our English club had a discussion on “Should teenagers clear out old things ”
Some think we should clear out old things. Old things take up space. Clearing them can make our rooms tidy. Also, we can give them to those in need.
However, others believe we shouldn’t clear out old things. Old things often carry good memories. For example, a toy may remind us of happy childhood times. Clearing them out might hurt these memories.
In my opinion, we should clear out old things but keep some with special memories. This way, we can have more space and keep the important memories.
What’s your opinion

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