莱芜区2024—2025学年度第一学期期末考试七年级
英 语 试 题
本试卷共12页，满分150分。考试用时120分钟。
注意事项：
1. 答卷前，考生务必将自己的姓名、准考证号、座号等填写在答题卡和试卷指定位置上。
2. 回答选择题时，选出每小题答案后，用2B 40笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑。如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号，回答非选择题时，用0.5mm黑色签字笔将答案写在答题卡上，写在本试卷上无效。
3. 考试结束后，将本试卷和答题卡一并交回。
第一部分 听力 (共四节，满分30分)
第一节 (共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
听录音，从每组句子中选出一个你所听到的句子。每个句子听一遍。
1. A. See you later then. B. Long time no see. C. Good luck to you!
2. A. Did she buy anything B. Is he tall or short C. Do you go shopping
3. A. It isn’t far from home. B. She doesn’t work here. C. Lucy didn’t go there.
4. A. Tina is smarter than me. B. He’d like tomato noodles. C. She is of medium height.
5. A. Where did you go on vacation B. Who did they go with C. How do you get to school
第二节 (共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
在录音中，你将听到五段对话，每段对话后有一个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。每段对话听两遍。
6. What does Mary’s mother look like
A. She wears glasses. B. She has short black hair. C. She’s tall and thin.
7. Where are the two speakers
A. In a library. B. At school. C. At a restaurant.
8. How was Kate’s school trip
A. It was great. B. It was terrible. C. It was wonderful.
9. Who runs fastest
A. Lucy. B. Anna. C. Lisa.
10. How does Tina like game shows
A. Relaxing. B. Excellent. C. Meaningless.
第三节 (共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
在录音中，你将听到一段对话，对话后有五个小题，从每小题A、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听对话前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间：听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。对话听两遍。
11. What color of the sweater does the boy like
A. Blue. B. Black. C. Green.
12. What size of the sweater does the boy take
A. S. B. M. C. L
13. What does the boy think of the sweater
A. He thinks the size is too small.
B. He thinks it’s too expensive.
C. He thinks it’s great.
14. How much is the hat
A.299 yuan. B.58 yuan. C.68 yuan.
15 Who wants to have a hat
A. The boy’s mother. B. The boy’s sister. C. The boy’s brother.
第四节 (共5小题；每小题1.5分，满分7.5分)
在录音中，你将听到一篇短文，短文后有五个小题，从每小题A 、B、C中选出能回答所给问题的正确答案。听短文前，你将有40秒钟的读题时间：听完后，你将有40秒钟的答题时间。短文听两遍。
16. What day was it yesterday
A. Monday. B. Saturday. C. Sunday.
17. How was the weather yesterday
A. Cloudy. B. Sunny. C. Windy.
18. How far is it from Alan’s home to the museum
A. About 2 kilometers. B. About 3 kilometers. C. About 4 kilometers.
19. When did Alan get to the museum
A. At 7: 00a. m. B. At 7: 30 a. m. C. At 11: 30a. m.
20. Where did Alan have lunch
A. At the museum. B. In the dining hall. C. At home.
第二部分 阅读 (共两节，满分50分)
第一节 阅读理解 (共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
Dear Sara. You asked me how to make fruit salad in your e-mail. Here is one way.
What we need: fruit, condensed milk (炼乳), sugar, ice-cream
Steps (步骤): →Wash all the fruit and cut them into pieces. Then put them into a large bowl. →Pour condensed milk into the bowl. Then you can add a little sugar. →Mix them well and place the bowl in the fridge to cool. Take it out in ten minutes, and add a spoon of ice-cream. You can enjoy the fruit salad now!
Tips (提示): 1. If you can’t find condensed milk, add enough sugar to fresh milk, mix it well and pour it over the fruit. 2. Make sure you choose fruit that is not too sweet. 3. This is a great dish for kids who don’t like to eat fruit. 4. If you don’t have much time to make a snack (小吃), the salad will help you. Jane
1. What did Jane teach Sara in this e-mail
A. How to make fruit juice. B. How to make fruit salad.
C. How to cook fish. D. How to cook turkey.
2. Which of the following is not needed for Sara to make the dish
A. Sugar. B. Fruit. C. Ice-cream. D. Water.
3. Which is the right order
①Add condensed milk and sugar and then mix them
②Put the bowl in the fridge and add some ice-cream later
③Wash fruit, cut them into pieces and put them in a bowl.
A. ③②① B. ③①② C. ②③① D. ②①③
4. What can we learn from the tips
A. Nothing can take place of condensed milk.
B. It takes a very long time to make the dish.
C. The salad will taste greater if the fruit is sweeter.
D. The dish is great for children who dislike fruit.
5. Where is the text probably taken from
A. A science magazine. B. A story book. C. A cooking book. D. A travel guide.
B
Last month, Tom and his classmates went to the zoo. They saw different animals and learned a lot about them.
As soon as they entered the zoo, they could hear the roar of the lions and see the elephants wandering there. The monkeys were swinging from the trees and making funny faces at them.
Their teacher divided them into different groups and asked them to watch the animals carefully. Tom’s group was asked to study the pandas. They learned that pandas mainly eat bamboo and they are also endangered.
Later, they visited the penguins field. The penguins were swimming in the cold water and looked so cute with their round bodies and wings that looked like flippers. Some of them even jumped out of the water and performed flips in the air.
Finally, they ended their trip with a visit to the petting zoo. There, they fed some of the smaller animals, like rabbits and chickens. It was a great way to end the day and make some close connections with the animals.
6. What animals did they see first when they entered the zoo
A. The pandas. B. The lions. C. The elephants. D. The monkeys.
7. What did they do at the penguin field
A. They fed the penguins.
B. They watched the penguins swim and jump.
C. They took photos of the penguins.
D. They performed with the penguins in the water.
8. How did they end their trip
A. By visiting the petting zoo. B. By feeding the pandas.
C. By watching a show. D. By going on a boat ride.
9. How many animals are mentioned (提到) in the text
A. Five. B. Six. C. Seven. D. Eight.
10. What is the structure of the text
A. B. C. D.
C
Crew members of Shenzhou 14 gave a science class 400 kilometers above Earth to students on October 12, 2022 in the Tiangong space station (太空站). The class began at 3: 40 p. m. with 1,420 students listening to the class from different classrooms across China. The primary classroom is in China Science and Technology Museum. There are also classrooms in Yunnan, Henan, and Shandong.
The three astronauts (宇航员) Chen Dong. Liu Yang, and Cai Xuzhe greeted students, teachers and other viewers (观众) when the class started in the afternoon. They talked about their special life and work inside the space station.
The astronauts made scientific experiments (科学实验) to show interesting physical phenomena (物理现象) in space. They also invited young viewers to do similar experiments along with them to see the differences between space and land to feel the fun. Also, they answered questions from students in the primary classroom during the class.
Tens of millions of teachers and students across China, including Hong Kong and Macao watched the hour-long live class. They were excited to know more about biology, physics and chemistry (化学) through the experiments in space.
It was the third class of the Tiangong Class. Chinese astronauts will present more classes in the future. Such activities help to encourage young people to love science.
Shi Yi, a teacher in Beijing, said the class was an eye-opening experience (经历) that would ignite (点燃) students’ interest in science.
Wang Yihan, a fifth-grade student, said, “The experiments really surprised me. I have great interest in space and would like to play a role in our country’s space program in the future.”
11. Who listened to the Tiangong Class
A. Students around the world. B. Students in the museum.
C. Students around China. D. Students in Yunnan.
12. What can we know about the Tiangong Class
A. The class started in the morning.
B. There were three teachers in class.
C. The astronauts sang a song after class.
D. The astronauts talked about history.
13. What’s paragraph 3 mainly about
A. What the astronauts did in class. B. Why they taught the students.
C. How to do scientific experiments. D. What the students learned.
14. What can we infer (推断) from the last two paragraphs
A. All the students asked questions.
B. Some people thought the class was educational.
C. The class was about geography.
D. The astronauts are good at telling stories.
15. What can be a suitable title for the title
A. Three Astronauts B. Scientific Experiment
C. Life in the Space Station D. The Tiangong Class
D
Do you often listen to music at loud volumes (音量) You should know it is bad for your hearing, according to the World Health Organization (WHO).
Many young people are at risk of hearing loss because they listen to loud noise for a long time. WHO said. Listening to music or watching a TV show at loud volumes can harm your hearing. The United Nations has standards (标准) for safe listening. It is not safe to listen to sounds that are louder than 85 decibels (dB分贝) for eight hours or 100 dB for 15 minutes. The sound of a busy road is about 85 dB and the sound of a rock concert can be about 100 dB.
Loud noise is harmful to the inner ear. Most of us are born with about 16,000 hair cells (毛细胞) in our inner ears. These cells detect (探测) sounds. However, listening to loud noise for a long time can make these cells work too hard and cause some of them to die. This is what causes hearing loss.
Some people might think that their music isn’t all that loud. But this can depend on where you are. For example, if you are in a noisy place like the subway, you might turn up your music too loud. Later, when you listen to it at the same volume in a quiet place, you might feel uncomfortable.
WHO said the “safe level” for most sounds is below 80 dB for up to 40 hours a week. A level of 80 dB is roughly equal to the noise of a subway.
16. How does the writer begin the text
A. By asking questions. B. By telling stories. C. By giving examples. D. By giving reasons.
17. What does the underlined word “harm” mean in paragraph 2
A. Be similar to. B. Be good for. C. Be bad for. D. Be interested in.
18. Which of the following is the safe level for most sound according to WHO
A. Louder than 85 dB for ten hours. B. 100 dB for twenty minutes.
C. 70 dB for less than 40 hours a week. D. 110dB for half an hour.
19. What does the underlined word “them” refer to (指的是) in the text
A. Our inner ears. B. Hair cells. C. Loud sounds. D. Old people.
20. What is the purpose (目的) of the text
A. To ask us not to listen to music.
B. To show how to make the standards for safe listening.
C. To describe different kinds of music.
D. To tell us not to listen to loud music too long.
第二节 阅读七选五 (共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分)
阅读下面短文，从短文后的选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。选项中有两项为多余选项。
___21___ Students carry small radios with earphones and listen to music before class and after class. Drivers listen to music on the car radio as they drive to work. Some shops use large speakers (扬声器) to play songs for their customers (顾客). Most of the radio programs are about music. Pop singers are national stars. ___22___ Wherever the singers go, all the young people want to meet them. People like buying their CDs. ___23___
There are other kinds of music. ___24___ One is called folk music (民间音乐). It tells stories about the common life of Americans. ___25___ At first, cowboys would sing these songs at night to their cows when they were watching them. Today, any music about country life and the love between a country boy and his girl is called country music.
A. Do you enjoy Chinese music
B. They are popular in America, too.
C. Americans like pop music very much.
D. You can hear their songs all over the country.
E. These singers make a lot of money from their CDs.
F. Another is called country music.
第三部分 语言运用 (共三节，满分35分)
第一节 补全对话 (共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分)
阅读下面对话，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出一个最佳答案完成对话。
Sally: Hello, Tony. Did you go to Xi’an last summer vacation
Tony: Yes. I went there with a few friends.
Sally: ___26___
Tony: It was sunny and hot.
Sally: Did you go to the Big Wild Goose Pagoda (大雁塔)
Tony: Yes, we visited it on the first day. It was wonderful.
Sally: ___27___
Tony: We also rode bicycles to the Shaanxi History Museum from the Big Wild Goose Pagoda.
Sally: ___28___
Tony: Great! We went to the famous street near the Bell Tower and ate much delicious food.
Sally: ___29___
Tony: No. In fact, I wanted to try paragliding, but I didn’t have enough money.
Sally: Did you buy anything special there
Tony: Yes. ___30___
Sally: Really Thank you so much.
26.
A What was the weather like B. How’s it going
C. What did you do D. Where did you go
27.
A. Did you take any photos B. Did you go anywhere else
C. Do you like the city D. Was it cold there
28.
A. How was your school trip B. When did you go to the museum
C. How was the food there D. Who did you go there with
29.
A. Did you try any activities there B. Were they very delicious
C. Did they buy anything cheap D. Do you like playing ping-pong there
30.
A. I bought nothing for myself. B. You can go there, too.
C. They bought something for me. D. I also bought something for you.
第二节 完形填空 (共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
Here is a story about a special dog. His name is Scooter. He only has thin white hair on his ____31____. His back legs point the ____32____ way. His tongue sticks out (舌头伸出). His ____33____ look won him the 2023 World’s Ugliest Dog competition.
The World’s Ugliest Dog competition ____34____ about 50 years ago in California. It’s ____35____ special dogs. The competition also wants to help dogs find families to love ____36____.
When Scooter was ____37____, he had trouble walking because of his back legs. But he learned something ____38____. He could ____39____ on his front legs. He could even jump to climb steps. Recently, he got a special cart with wheels (带轮子的车) to help him move around ____40____.
Scooter’s owner, Linda Elmquist, says Scooter is friendly to ____41____. He has no idea that he is ____42____ from other dogs.
All the judges (评委) of the competition thought Scooter was great. They ____43____ him. One of the judges, Gaudi Schwartz, said Scooter changed people’s ____44____ of the word “ugly”. The competition wants to show that every dog, no matter how it ____45____, should have a loving home.
31. A. head B. arm C. foot D. leg
32. A. near B. wrong C. right D. far
33. A. busy B. good C. special D. expensive
34. A. sold B. won C. started D. left
35. A. about B. with C. of D. in
36. A. them B. him C. us D. it
37. A. old B. little C. happy D. tired
38. A. boring B. useful C. funny D. serious
39. A. laugh B. eat C. walk D. run
40. A. quietly B. slowly C. quickly D. carefully
41. A. someone B. anyone C. everyone D. everything
42. A. different B. same C. popular D. creative
43. A. thanked B. helped C. invited D. liked
44. A. ideas B. answers C. results D. reasons
45. A. feels B. sounds C. eats D. looks
第三节 阅读填空 (共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分)
阅读下面短文，在空白处填入1个适当的单词或括号内单词的正确形式。
This is Tammela School, a school in Finland. Now the students ____46____ (have) a math class with their robot (机器人) teacher. The “teacher” is blue ____47____ it is about 25cm tall. When students need help with their math, it can help them. “The robot teacher can make math____48____ (class) interesting. Many students like it, and they think it is their favorite teacher.”
One American university also uses a robot as a teacher ____49____ (help) students with their problems. And no students knew that is a robot at the beginning!
When someone ____50____ (tell) the students that their teacher was a robot, hill Watson, they all got very surprised. “How is it possible I was talking to a robot ” said Baidey. “She sounds like a great teacher. “Another student Jennifer said, “We think Jill is our ____51____ (good) teacher. She is ____52____ (real) helpful.”
Jill can quickly find possible answers to the questions in ____53____ (she) computer and make sure they are all right. After that, she answers the students in a beautiful voice. The voice sounds like ____54____ famous actress.
“The robots can teach well, but they can’t keep the class in order (有序). The school still ____55____ (need) real teachers. “the headmaster of the school said.
第四部分 写作 (共两节，满分35分)
第一节 情境运用 (共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分)
根据所提供的图片，用一个完整的句子提问或应答。
56.
A: Does your sister have straight hair
B: No _____________________________________.
57.
A: What did they do last weekend
B: ________________________________________.
58.
A: ________________________________________
B: Once a week.
59.
A: Is Mike as tall as Tom
B: No. _____________________________________.
60.
A: ________________________________________
B: We need two spoons.
第二节 作文 (满分25分)
61. 假如你是李华，你们学校在上周组织了一次“走进乡村，拥抱自然”的主题活动。你的英国笔友Mary对本次活动很感兴趣，发电子邮件询问你本次活动的具体情况。请根据以下提示，给她回复一封电子邮件，分享你的活动经历。
时 间 上周末
地 点 乡村
活 动 1. 爬山 2. 体验农活…… 3. ……
感 想 ……
要求：
1. 邮件内容包括以上要点，可适当发挥：
2. 语言表达要准确，语句要通顺：
3. 不得出现真实的人名和校名：
4. 词数80左右。邮件的开头结尾已经给出，不计入总字数。
Dear Mary,
Thanks for your email. _____________________________________________________________________________________________________________
___________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________________
Yours,
Li Hua
莱芜区2024—2025学年度第一学期期末考试七年级
英 语 试 题 答案
第一部分 听力 (共四节，满分30分)（听力答案省略）
第二部分 阅读 (共两节，满分50分)
第一节 阅读理解 (共20小题；每小题2分，满分40分)
阅读下列短文，从每题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中选出最佳选项。
A
【1~5题答案】
【答案】1. B 2. D 3. B 4. D 5. C
B
【6~10题答案】
【答案】6. C 7. B 8. A 9. C 10. B
C
【11~15题答案】
【答案】11. C 12. B 13. A 14. B 15. D
D
【16~20题答案】
【答案】16. A 17. C 18. C 19. B 20. D
第二节 阅读七选五 (共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分)
【21~25题答案】
【答案】21. C 22. D 23. E 24. B 25. F
第三部分 语言运用 (共三节，满分35分)
第一节 补全对话 (共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分)
【26~30题答案】
【答案】26. A 27. B 28. C 29. A 30. D
第二节 完形填空 (共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分)
【31~45题答案】
【答案】31. A 32. B 33. C 34. C 35. A 36. A 37. B 38. B 39. C 40. C 41. C 42. A 43. D 44. A 45. D
第三节 阅读填空 (共10小题；每小题1.5分，满分15分)
【46~55题答案】
【答案】46. are having
47. and 48. classes
49. to help
50. told 51. best
52. really 53. her
54. a 55. needs
第四部分 写作 (共两节，满分35分)
第一节 情境运用 (共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分)
【56~60题答案】
【答案】56. She has curly hair
57. They went boating last weekend
58. How often does he watch TV
59. Mike is shorter than Tom
60. How many spoons of yogurt do you need
第二节 作文 (满分25分)
【61题答案】
【答案】例文
Dear Mary,
Thanks for your email. I’m eager to share with you my experience in the countryside last weekend. We went to a beautiful village. There, we did a lot of interesting activities. First, we climbed the mountain, enjoying the fresh air and beautiful scenery. Then, we had the opportunity to do some farm work, which was a new experience for me. This activity not only allowed me to get close to nature but also helped me understand the importance of agriculture. It was really an unforgettable experience.
Yours,
Li Hua

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