2023学年第一学期学生学业质量诊断调研
九年级英语（试题）
本试卷共四大题，8页，满分90分。考试时间100分钟。
注意事项：
1. 答卷前，考生务必在答题卡上用黑色字迹的钢笔成签字笔填写自己的考生号，学校、姓名、班别、试室号、座位号，再用2B铅笔把对应号码涂黑。
2. 选择题每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑，如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他谷案，不能答在试卷上。
3. 非选择题必须用黑色字迹的钢笔或签字笔作答，答案必须写在答题卡各题目指定区域的相应位置上：如需要改动，先划掉原来的答案，然后再写上新的答案，改动的答案也不能超出指定的区域；不准使用铅笔、圆珠笔和涂改液。不按以上要求作答的答案无效。
4. 考生必须保持答题卡的整洁；考试结束，将本试卷和答題卡一并交回。
一、语法选择（共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
阅读下面短文，按照句子结构的语法性和上下文连贯的要求，从1~15各题所给的A、B、C和D项中选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
Robert likes taking a walk in the park after work. One day when he 1 in the park, he heard someone calling his name. He stopped 2 around, but saw 3 . Then he felt tired and sat down on a bench. 4 he was looking around, he suddenly found a little snake was sitting next to him.
5 terrible it was! He was loo afraid 6 away from the bench and didn’t know what to do. Then he heard someone calling 7 name again, 8 woman appeared beside the bench and said, “Robert, come here! You 9 stay on the bench like that. People 10 by you.”
Robert was in great surprise and looked at the woman 11 a long time. He didn’t know her, 12 how did she know his name So he said, “Excuse me, I have no idea about you. But people always say I’m handsome.” The woman seemed to be shocked by 13 Robert had said. At that moment, Robert found something amazing. The little snake next to him 14 moved down from the bench and went towards the woman.
Then Robert heard the woman say, “I’m not talking to you. I’m telling Robert, my pet snake:” You can imagine how embarrassed Robert was at that moment. Life is full of the unexpected. After all, 15 people would like to keep a snake as a pet.
1. A. is walking B. was walking C. walks D. has walked
2. A. look B. looking C. to look D. looked
3. A. nobody B. somebody C. anybody D. everybody
4. A. After B. Before C. Until D. When
5. A. How a B. How C. What D. What a
6. A. moves B. moving C. to move D. moved
7. A. he B. himself C. him D. his
8. A. A B. An C. The D. /
9. A. can B. can’t C. must D. needn’t
10. A. is scared B. wilt scared C. will be scared D. were scared
11. A. for B. in C. at D. on
12. A. though B. or C. so D. but
13. A. who B. what C. why D. where
14. A. slow B. slower C. slowly D. slowest
15. A. few D. little C. a few D. a little
二、完形填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
阅读下面短文，掌握大意，然后从16~25各题所给的A、B、C、D项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
That way, my friend Carol and I stood at the foot of the 11,240-foot Mount Hood at the age of 16. We started at 3 a.m. It’s 16 to start winter climbs at night when there’s no sunlight so the snow is frozen hard. It was cold but we had 17 clothes. Along the way, we met two other climbers and 18 on together
After 5 hours, we reached Devil’s Kitchen, a point at about 10,000 feet. Then the wind got stronger and the other climbers turned back, but Carol and I went ahead. We were well 19 the climb.
At around 9 a.m. we reached Ice Step. Suddenly, I heard the ice under my feet break. In a second, I fell backward. I could hear Carol calling me as I rolled down (滚下) the 20 . I stuck out my arms and legs, trying to catch anything. 21 . I came to a stop on a ground just above Devil’s Kitchen. I was alive! I checked my body, my head, neck and arms. For the most parts, I was fine, except for a bad 22 in my left leg — I couldn’t move.
As Carol made her way down, I shouted for help and other climbers came. They 23 the rescue team and stayed with me. I kept myself awake until the rescuers reached me. They pulled me down the mountain to West Hospital. The doctors said it would be a year 24 I could climb again, but I was back 6 months later.
The 25 made me grow as a person. Going through that at such a young age helped me realize that nothing could keep me from doing my favorite tiling in the world.
16. A. clearer B. brighter C. safer D. deeper
17. A. wet B. new C. cool D. warm
18. A. planned B. started C. continued D. finished
19. A. cared for B. prepared for C. looked for D. wailed for
20. A. mountain B. lake C. tower D. step
21. A. Normally B. Exactly C. Luckily D. Nearly
22. A. pain B. sign C. habit D. illness
23. A. cried B. called C. shouted D. helped
24. A. when B. since C. before D. after
25. A. example B. achievement C. memory D. experience
三、阅读（并两节：满分35分）
第一节 阅读理解（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
阅读下面短文，掌握大意，然后从26~40各题所给的A、B、C、D项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
(A)
When Wang Haiyan was young, her favorite toys weren’t Barbie dolls. Instead, she started learning to make shadow puppets (皮影) from her father at the age of 13. Now 43, Wang has spent 30 years practising and spreading the art.
Shadow puppetry is a form of theater that uses puppets made from leather or paper with music and singing. It was invented during the Western Han Dynasty, it tells us about folk tales and historical stories, passing down culture and traditions over thousands of years.
Shadow puppetry is all about creating the puppets and performing with them. Wang’s hometown of Hua County, Shaanxi, is known as the birthplace of the folk art.
Puppet-makers must follow 24 steps to make the puppets, including washing the leather, carving (雕刻), and painting. Carving is the most difficult part.
“We have a special carving skill — moving the leather under the knife,” Wang said. “You have to hold the knife still in your right hand and only move the leather in your left hand.”
It took Wang three years to master this skill. She used a brick (砖) to strengthen her left hand while practising. It takes about 3,000 carves to make a shadow puppet. “The complicated (复杂的) steps make it hard to hand down the folk art,” she said.
But Wang has found a way to do so. In 2016, she made shadow puppets based on the cartoon series Huyao Xiaohongniang and gave an online performance. She used colors like blue and purple that aren’t often seen in shadow puppetry and added some sticks to the puppets to make the performance more lively. “I hope more and more young people enjoy shadow puppetry and pass it down.” She said.
26. What’s the main idea of the second paragraph
A. What shadow puppetry is. B. How shadow puppetry is performed.
C. When shadow puppetry became popular. D. Why Wang is interested in shadow puppetry.
27. Which is the hardest step in making a puppet according to the passage
A. Washing the leather. B. Carving the leather
C. Painting the leather. D. Folding the leather.
28. According to Wang, why is it difficult to spread shadow puppetry
A. It’s difficult to learn to make puppets. B. This art is only known in Hua County.
C. It requires great strength to perform the art, D. The history of shadow puppetry is too old.
29. What can we learn from the passage
A. Wang spent 30 years learning to cane puppets.
B. Wang enjoys getting young people interested in this art.
C. Wang has set up a company to make and sell shadow puppets.
D. Tang is working on a cartoon about shadow puppets.
(B)
Martin Strel is a long-distance swimmer, best known for swimming the world’s big rivers. He was born in Slovenia in 1954. He taught himself to swim when he was six and became a professional (职业的) swimmer in 1978. Martin holds Guinness World Records for swimming the Danube River, the Mississippi River, the Yanetze River and the Amazon River.
Of all his achievements, the greatest is his Amazon River swim. The Amazon is known as the largest and most dangerous river in the world. Several swimmers had tried to swim it, but all failed, Martin decided to risk his life and make history. He wanted to show the world that people could achieve their dreams and goals with hard work and perseverance (毅力). On April 7th, 2007, Martin Strel completed his Amazon River all the way from Atalaya (Peru) to the Atlantic Ocean at Belem (Brazil). He struggled (奋战) with the river for 66 days and swam 3,274 miles in total- He became a worldwide hero.
Many people still cannot believe what he has done so far, so that is why they sometimes describe him as “Fishman”, “Human Fish” or even “the Craziest Man in the World”.
In 2009, American filmmakers produced a documentary (纪录片) called Big River Man. And the book, The Man Who Swan the Amazon, has been so]d in many countries. It tells us an inspirational story of perseverance and hard work, which has encouraged many people.
Martin doesn’t swim for money. Instead, he swims to teach people about the importance of keeping water clean.
Martin has always been looking for the challenges of the impossible. At present, he is training for a new challenge — swimming for The Grand Canyon.
30. How old was Martin Strel when he succeeded in swimming the Amazon River
A. 24. B. 53. C. 55. D. 69.
31. What does the underlined word “inspirational (in Para, 5)” probably mean
A. frightening B. terrible C. encouraging D. lively
32. What’s the purpose of Martin swimming the big rivers
A. To make a lot of money for a good living.
B. To teach people the importance keeping water dean.
C. To produce exciting documentaries and best-selling books.
D. To teach people how to swim the big rivers.
33. What can be the best title of this passage
A. Swim for Fun B. Face the Failure
C. Swim for Money D. Challenge the Impossible
(C)
International Poetry (诗歌) Competition
INTRODUCTION: World Poetry Day is celebrated on 21 March. Its purpose is to improve people’s ability to read, write, and teach poems all over the world. This year, the International Poetry Center is holding a poetry competition to celebrate the festival! The competition is open to all the poets (诗人) aged 18 and over from all over the world.
GROUPS: Open Group (open to all the poets aged 18 and over) ESL Group (open to all the poets aged 18 and over who can write in English as a Second Language) The winners of each group will receive 1,000.
RULES: ①All the poems must be unpublished (未出版的) works. ②Poems will not be returned, so please keep a copy. ③The poem(s) must be in English and created by the poet himself / herself.
TIME: From 3 March 2023 to 28 August 2023.
NOTE: To enter the competition, please visit the Center Shop to pay 5 for each poem. Once the payment is made, please e-mail the poem(s) to poetrycomp@. Remember to mark Open or ESL in the lop right-hand corner of the document (文档) to show which group to enter before e-mailing your poem(s). Questions about the competition can be e-mailed to poetrycomp@.
34. What’s the purpose of the World Poetry Day
A. To encourage the British to write poems.
B. To teach children how to read and write poems.
C. To help people to read, write and teach poems better
D. To raise money for the poets from all over the world.
35. If you want to take part in the competition, the poem ____________ .
A. should be written by yourself B. should be written in your second language
C. will be returned after the competition D. can be a published one
36. Which of the following is TRUE
A. The competition will last for four months.
B. You can mark Open or ESL in the top left-hand corner of the document.
C. If you take part in the competition, you will get 1,000.
D. You can e-mail poetrycomp@ for more information.
(D)
Even after 10 p.m., a video meeting between a group of students is still going strong. For these students, who are devoted to self-study, this virtual meeting is like a library. The virtual self-study room (虚拟自习室) has become a popular silent space to work alongside other students.
An eight-hour video, posted in March, shows the self-study rooms of many top Chinese universities. These rooms have become a warm place for people who enjoy a good learning atmosphere.
“At first, I was just looking for a partner to prepare for the IELTS exam together. I never expected it to be so popular,” said Yue Yetu, who started an online steam. “It amazed me that over 150 people were online at the same time. The participants included teenagers and adults, most of whom were preparing for their examinations. Greatly motivated, Yue has passed her exam but she still keeps the virtual self-study room running.
“They don’t have to turn on the cameras in the room. However, many of them would prefer to fire up the webcam because it reminds them not to be distracted.” Yue said.
Yue also set up a chat group, where dozens of members shared their learning process and ups and downs in life. “I received a lot of support from it, and I was deeply moved,” said Chen Yihan, a participant. To Yue, her virtual self-study room has far-reaching meaning. On a winter day, a pair of siblings (姐妹) showed up in her room, wearing fingerless gloves and reading in the low light. Seeing that, she decided to keep the room running for 24 hours. She said they made her realize the meaning or creating such an online space.
37. What is the virtual self-study room like for the students who are devoted to self-study
A. It is a place where they can socialize with friends.
B. It is a library where they can find resources and study quietly.
C. It is a platform where they can watch videos and take online courses.
D. It is an online marketplace where they can buy and sell study materials.
38. Why did Yue Yetu start an online study stream
A. To find a partner to prepare for the IELTS exam together.
B. To create a platform for people to share their learning process.
C. To provide a space for people to discuss their ups and downs in life.
D. To encourage people to turn on their cameras during the virtual meetings.
39. Why do many participants prefer to turn on their webcams during the virtual meetings
A. To show off their appearance and impress others.
B. To have face-to-face conversations with other participants.
C. To remind themselves not lo be distracted while studying.
D. To share their learning progress with others through video recordings.
40. What did Yue realize after seeing the siblings reading in the low light in her virtual self-study room
A. She realized that the virtual self-study room should be open 24 hours a day.
B. She realized that she needed to improve the lighting in her own study room.
C. She realized that she should start offering one-on-one tutoring sessions in the virtual self-study room.
D. She realized the importance of creating such an online space for people to learn together.
第二节 阅读填空（共5小题：每小题1分，满分5分）
阅读短文及文后选项，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题卡上将该项涂黑。
Holding conversations may not seem like a skill, After all, we talk to people every day. But many people feel nervous when making conversations. 41
Use your body language. 42 The way you stand and act tells people a lot about you. When you’re talking with someone, stand straight and look him in the eye. When you’re listening, look at the other person, and lean (依靠) forward to show that you’re interested in what he is saying.
Try to interact (互动) with each other. A good conversation is not a speech. 43 If you re doing all the talking, stop to give the other persons time to speak. If they don’t say anything, try asking them a question. Maybe they’ll say something you are also interested in and can reply to. People are excited to find others with similar interests.
44 Don’t worry if the conversation has quiet moments. Think of them as chances to change the topic to something you’re interested in. 45 Or once again, you can ask a question to the other persons.
With any skill, you will improve on holding conversations with time.
A. Don’t be afraid of silence. B. It means that people should talk in the conversation. C. As we all know, many conversations happen without any words. D. You could also talk about something you’ve done recently. E. Here are some ways to make a good conversation.
四、写作（共三节；满分30分）
第一节 语篇填词（共5空；每空1分，满分5分）
根据下列语篇以及所给单词的首字母写出所缺单词。在填写答題卡时，要求写出完整单词。（每空只写一词）
Stephen Hawking was a famous physicist. He was born in 1942, He died at his home on March 14th, 2018 in Cambridge, Britain.
Since he was 21 years old, Hawking had been (46) b__________________ ill, but he didn’t give up his hope of living. He went on to (47) s__________________ at Cambridge University after graduating from Oxford University, In 1965, he got a doctor’s degree (博士学位). Then he worked as a professor at Cambridge University.
Hawking was known tor his work with black holes. He also (48 ) w__________________ several popular science books. Although he didn’t live as freely as others, he still felt lie was happy and he was thankful to life. When Hawking was (49) i__________________ to China, he made speeches in some famous universities.
From Stephen Hawking’s (50 ) w__________________ life, we learn that no matter how bad life is, we should not lose hope. As he once said, “Life is not fair, you just have to do the best you can in your own situation.”
笫二节 完成句子（共5小题；每小题2分，满分10分）
根据所给的汉语内容，用英语完成下列句子。（每空限填一词）
51. 上个月，Linda来中国出差。
Last month, Linda came to China __________________ __________________ .
52. 对于她而言，能尝试各种美味的事物是很开心的事情。
__________________ __________________ for her __________________ __________________ all kinds of delicious food.
53. 她对此次旅行很满意。
She __________________ __________________ __________________ the journey very much.
54. Linda说：“中国人的饮食是多么健康呀！”
“__________________ __________________ the Chinese diets are!” Linda said.
55. Linda想直到她什么时候再有机会到中国。
Linda wonders __________________ __________________ __________________ __________________ a chance to visit China again.
第三节 书面表达（共1小题；满分15分）
你们学校英语社团正在组织题为“My family life is __________________”的征文活动。假如你是李明，请根据以下内容提示用英语写一篇短文参加活动。
内容要点如下：
1. 五口之家，家庭幸福，邻里和睦：
2. 分担家务，周末户外活动：
3. 相互支持，经常交流，良好家规助我成长；
4. 请补充说明一至两点与家庭相关的情况。
注意：
1. 先用一个形较词补充题目；
2. 文中不得透露个人姓名和学校名称；
3. 词数：80字左右；
4. 内容连贯，不要逐条翻译。
My family life is __________________
2023学年第一学期学生学业质量诊断调研
九年级英语参考答案
一、语法选择 ( 共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分)
1~5：BCADB 6~10：CDABC 11~15：ADBCA
二、完形填空（共10小题；每小题1分，满分10分）
16~20: CDCBA 21~25: CABCD
三、阅读（共两节；满分35分）
第一节 阅读理解（共15小题；每小题2分，满分30分）
26~29: ABAB 30~33: BCBD 33~37: CAD 38~40: BACD
第二节 阅读填空（共5小题；每小题1分，满分5分）
41~45: ECBAD
四、写作（共三节；满分30分）
第一节 语篇填词（共5空; 每空1分, 满分5分）
46. badly 47. study 48. wrote 49. invited 50. whole
第二节 完成句子（共5小题；每小题2分, 满分10分）
on business 52. It’s nice/glad/happy/delighted to taste/eat/try/have
53. was/is happy/pleased/satisfied with
How healthy 55. when she will/can have/get
第三节 书面表达 (共l小题；满分15分 )
参考范文：
My family life is happy
My family is a small but happy one. There are five people in my family. Our neighbors are
friendly.
In our family, everyone shares the housework. We help each other. At weekends, we often go out for outdoor activities. It’s a great way to relax and enjoy nature together. We also have some good family rules that help me grow healthily.
My family loves pets. We have a cute cat named Mimi who brings us lots of joy.
In conclusion, I am grateful to have such a happy family. They give me love, support and
guidance, which make me feel safe and confident. I love my family.

郑重声明：本文版权归原作者所有，转载文章仅为传播更多信息之目的，如作者信息标记有误，请第一时间联系我们修改或删除，多谢。