2022~2023学年度第一学期期末试卷
七年级英语
注意事项：
1.本试卷共12页，满分为150分，考试时间为120分钟。考试结束后，考生必须将答题纸交回。
2.答题前，请务必将自己的姓名、考试证号用0.5毫米黑色字迹的签字笔填写在答题纸上指定的位置。
3.答案必须按要求填写在答题纸上，在试卷、草稿纸上答题一律无效。
第I卷（选择题 共77分）
第I卷共66小题，请将答案按要求写在答题纸上。
一、听力部分（本题共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分）
从A、B、C三个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题纸上将该项涂黑。
A.听对话，回答问题。每段对话听两遍。
1. What does the girl want to buy for Lucy
A. B. C.
2. What subject does the girl like
A. B. C.
3. What’s the weather going to be like tomorrow
A. B. C.
4. Which is Sandy’s favorite festival
A. B. C.
5. What does Mike like playing after school
A. Volleyball. B. Football. C. Basketball.
6. How does Simon’s father go to work
A. By bus. B. By car. C. By bike.
7. What time does Mr. Wu get up on Sundays
A. At 6:30. B. At 7:00. C. At 7:30.
8. When is Kitty’s birthday
A. In January. B. In August. C. In October.
9. Where are the man and the woman
A. In a shop. B. In a hospital. C. In a restaurant.
10. How much is the pink coat
A. 80 dollars. B. 40 dollars. C. 20 dollars.
听一段对话，回答第11-12小题。
11. What is the girl’s favourite food
A. Hamburgers. B. Fish. C. Bread.
12. When does the boy usually have hamburgers
A. Every Tuesday. B. On Thursday. C. On weekends.
听第一篇短文，回答第13-15小题。
Our school sports day
Day of a week On 13 .
Time & sports Football at 9 o’clock.
Volleyball at 14 .
Table tennis at 2:00 p.m.
Basketball match at 3:00 p.m.
15 is the last sport.
13. A. Friday. B. Saturday. C. Sunday.
14. A. 10:30 a.m. B. 11:00 a.m. C. 11:30 a.m.
15. A. Running. B. Swimming. C. Basketball match.
听第二篇短文，完成第16-20小题。
16. Where is David
A. In England. B. In China. C. In Japan.
17. Why does David want to join the music club
A. He likes art. B. He can play the piano well. C. His friend is there.
18. Which subject does David like best
A. English. B. Maths. C. Art.
19. How many clubs does David want to join
A. Two. B. Three. C. Four.
20. Which of the following is TRUE
A. David wants to join the English Club.
B. David likes Picasso very much.
C. David is good at drawing pictures.
二、单项选择（本题共15小题；每小题1分，其中32-35题是课外阅读，满分15分。）
从A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项，并在答题纸上将该项涂黑。
21. Which underlined (划线的) part makes a different sound
A. brown B. house C. bowl D. mouth
22. Which of the following words has the same number of syllables (音节) as “lazy”
A. important B. shirt C. clever D. smooth
23. How many different sounds of the underlined “(e) s” are there in the following sentence
He likes talking about football matches and players with his cousins.
A. One. B. Two. C. Three. D. Four.
24. This pair of ________ looks cute and makes my hands warm in cold winter.
A. trousers B. gloves C. socks D. jeans
25. The 2022 World Cup took place in Qatar, ________ November 20 to December 18.
A. in B. on C. at D. from
26. I ________ go to the supermarket because of the epidemic (疫情). Online shopping is so easy.
A. sometimes B. seldom C. usually D. always
27. — ________ is the notebook on the teacher’s desk
— From the handwriting (笔迹), I think it belongs to Sandy.
A. Who B. What C. Where D. Whose
28. —Do you have this blouse in a small ________
— Sorry. It only comes in medium (M).
A. style B. colour C. material D. size
29. Could you help me ________ who likes to play a trick
A. look for B. find out C. set off D. look after
30. — ________ you r mother free now
— I’m afraid not. She ________ the house for the coming Spring Festival these days.
A. Does; cleans B. Does; is cleaning C. Is; is cleaning D. Is; cleans
31. —Hello, Lily! Can I meet Mr Lee
— ________! I’ll tell him you are here.
A. That’s all right B. Just a minute C. It sounds good D. Sorry to hear that
32. In which order did the farmer trade (交易) with others in the story Always Right
A. Horse→Cow→Sheep→Goose→Hen→Apples. B. Horse→Sheep→Cow→Hen→Goose→Apples.
C. Cow→Sheep→Horse→Goose→Hen→Apples. D. Cow→Horse→Hen→Goose→Sheep→Apples.
33. Who married (嫁) the King of the Flowers at the end of the story
A. The little mermaid. B. A princess. C. Thumbelina. D. The flower fairy.
34. What did the little mermaid lose (失去) to see the prince
A. Her eyes. B. Her voice. C. Her arms. D. Her legs.
35. From the story ________, we know the little boy is brave enough to tell the truth (真相).
A. Always Right B. The Little Mermaid C. Thumbelina D. The Emperor’s New Clothes
三、完型填空（本题共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分）
请认真阅读下面短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题纸上将该项涂黑。
A
Children’s Day is coming. And Mrs. Black 36 a newspaper story to her class now. The story says: The doctors in Children’s Hospital are asking for 37 for children’s toys. Some children have to stay in hospital because of illness. They are sad and always cry, but toys can make sick children 38 happy and quiet.
After Mrs. Black reads the story, she says, “We should help them. Could you give me 39 ideas ”
“We can buy some toys for the children in hospital.” “We can give some of our own toys to 40 .” say the boys and girls one after another.
“Well, your ideas would be nice,” Mrs. Black says, “ 41 my idea is different from yours.”
“We can make some toys,” says one of them.
Mrs. Black smiles, “Bingo! Would you like to spend your free time 42 toys ”
“Yes, yes!” the whole class answer happily.
It is Children’s Day. Mrs. Black 43 her students to the hospital with the toys made by themselves. The colorful toys make the white hospital lively.
A few days later Mrs. Black reads 44 newspaper story to the class: The students of Class Three in Green Street School made all kinds of toys and brought them to Children’s Hospital 45 June 1st. The doctor says, “Our children enjoy themselves playing with the toys. It’s really their happiest day. Thank you, Class Three …”
36. A. reads B. is reading C. read D. will read
37. A. ideas B. sweets C. money D. news
38. A. feel B. feeling C. to feel D. feels
39. A. any B. small C. enough D. some
40. A. us B. we C. they D. them
41. A. and B. so C. but D. or
42. A. making B. to make C. make D. makes
43. A. brings B. takes C. shows D. sends
44. A. the other B. other C. another D. others
45. A. in B. at C. on D. after
B
Pen Pals (笔友)
We are learning how to write friendly letters at school. I don’t mind writing practice letters, but it will be more interesting to write a 46 letter to someone.
Today, our teacher, Mrs. Zhang says that we really are going to write a letter to someone! We all start 47 at once. Mrs. Zhang asks us to quiet (安静) down. She says we are going to write to some students of Grade Seven in London to know about their life in 48 . That sounds so 49 ! Mrs. Zhang hands out the 50 of our pen pals, and asks us to use what we learned about friendly letters to write to our pen pals. My pen pal’s name is Oliver.
Mrs. Zhang says we have to write about two 51 in our letters: “Which holidays do you have in the year ” and “What do you like to play ” We also have to answer them in 52 letters.
It takes a few weeks to get 53 back from our pen pals. Oliver plays video games like we do over here. They have many of the 54 holidays as we have, like New Year’s Day! But we don’t celebrate some of their other holidays, such as Boxing Day. It is really interesting to 55 what is the same and what is different about living in different countries.
46. A. funny B. boring C. early D. real
47. A. running B. talking C. writing D. reading
48. A. England B. America C. China D. Japan
49. A. lucky B. cool C. free D. easy
50. A. books B. homes C. names D. clothes
51. A. words B. stories C. lessons D. questions
52. A. our B. its C. your D. his
53. A. notebooks B. pens C. letters D. dictionaries
54. A. same B. different C. exciting D. interesting
55. A. hear B. give C. open D. see
四、阅读理解（本题共11小题；每小题2 分，满分22分）
请认真阅读下列短文，从短文后各题所给的A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳选项，并在答题纸上将该项涂黑。
A
Xinhua Bookshop Address: Jiefang Road, No. 885 Opening hours: Monday to Friday: 8 a.m. - 5 p.m. Saturday to Sunday: 9 a.m. - 6 p.m. Promotion Activity (促销活动): Get a free notebook on Saturday and Sunday if you buy a book.
Gaochao Food Shop Address: Shisha n Road, No. 184 Opening hours: Tuesday to Friday: 9 a.m. -7 p.m. Saturday: 10 a.m. -9 p.m You can call or e-mail us to order (订购) food. Promotion Activity: Ice-cream is free on Tuesday and Saturday if you eat in the store.
Ms Xie’s Clothes Shop Address: Guangming Road, No. 18 Opening hours: Monday to Friday: 10 a.m. -5 p.m. Saturday to Sunday: 10 a.m. - 10 p.m Promotion Activity: Clothes are on sale on Friday and Saturday. A hat is free if you buy two skirts one time.
56. On which day do all the above three shops have promotion activities
A. Tuesday. B. Friday. C. Saturday. D. Sunday.
57. You can go to Gaochao Food Store at ________.
A. 9 a.m. on Monday B. 9: 30 a.m. on Tuesday
C. 9: 30 p.m. on Saturday D. 7 p.m. on Sunday
58. Which statement is TRUE according to the material
A. You can go to Xinhua Bookstore at 7 p. m. on Sunday.
B. Gaochao Food Store is open five days a week.
C. The ice-cream is free from Tuesday to Saturday in Gaochao Food Store.
D. If you buy two hats, you can get a free skirt in Ms Xie’s clothes store.
B
I am a Year 7 student called Lily. I love fashion design very much. I began to design things when I was just five years old. I got a sewing machine (缝纫机) from my father on my 12th birthday. From then on, I began to make clothes.
To make more people know the importance to protecting the environment (环境), I decide to have a special fashion show. I will design all the clothes. And I will use 60 things as material.
First, I want to design some long dresses. They are not made of cotton or silk. They are made of old newspapers. I also want to draw some nice pictures on the dresses.
I also want to design some skirts. I decorate the skirts with old CDs. With CDs, they are shining and beautiful.
My friend Jim will help me with the necklaces (项链) to match the clothes. He is good at designing necklaces. I am sure they will be wonderful.
What about the models They are all from our school. And I need twenty students, ten girls and ten boys. With the help of my teachers and classmates, I’m sure that I’ll have a wonderful fashion show.
59. When did Lily begin to make clothes
A. In Year 5. B. At 5 years old. C. In Year 7. D. At 12 years old.
60. Which of the following words can be put in 60 in Paragraph 2
A. modern B. recycled (可循环的) C. pretty D. plastic (塑料的)
61. In Paragraph 4, what does the underlined word “they” refer to (指代)
A. The CDs. B. The necklaces. C. The skirts. D. The dresses.
62. Which of the following is TRUE according to the passage
A. Lily will design the clothes made of cotton and silk.
B. Jim will buy a necklace for me to match the clothes.
C. There will be ten models in the fashion show.
D. Many people helped Lily a lot for the fashion show.
C
The Lantern Festival is a traditional Chinese festival. It falls on the 15th of the first month of the lunar calendar (阴历). Ancient people also called it Shangyuan Festival. Celebrations and traditions on this day began from the Han Dynasty (朝代) and became popular in the Tang Dynasty.
Watching the red lanterns is one of the main traditions. Lanterns of different shapes and sizes are usually put on trees, or along river banks on show. It is said that sky lanterns were first used by Zhuge Kongming to ask for help when he was in trouble. Today, when the lanterns slowly rise into the air, people make wishes.
Another tradition is guessing lantern riddles (谜). The riddles are usually short, wise and sometimes funny. The answer to a riddle can be everything: a person’s name, a place name or other things.
The most important thing is to eat sweet dumplings with different tastes. In northern China, they are called yuanxiao while in southern part they’re named tangyuan.
In old times, the Lantern Festival was also romantic (浪漫的). It’s the best time for young people to meet each other. A line from Xin Qiji during the Song Dynasty shows this:
Hundreds and thousands of times I searched for her in the crowd. Suddenly I turned, and there she stood, in the dim (昏暗的) light.
63. When did celebrations and traditions of the Lantern Festival start from
A. The Han Dynasty. B. The Tang Dynasty. C. The Song Dynasty. D. The Ming Dynasty.
64. What were sky lanterns first used for by Zhuge Kongming in old times
A. Making wishes. B. Asking for help. C. Celebrating birthdays. D. Guessing riddles.
65. Paragraphs 2-4 mainly tell us ________ of the Lantern Festival.
A. the traditions B. the history C. different names D. delicious food
66. The line from Xin Qiji in the passage shows the Lantern Festival was ________ in old times.
A. boring B. funny C. romantic D. traditional
第II卷（非选择题 共73分）
第II卷共39小题，请将答案按要求写在答题纸上。
五、词汇部分（本题共28小题；每小题1分，满分28分。请将答案写在答题纸上。）
A.认真阅读下面两篇短文，根据所给音标写出单词或选择方框中的短语完成短文，每个短语限填一次。
a member of show... around wake up far away from pocket money both... and computer games twice a month
How time flies! You are a seventh-grader at middle school. Is your school life full of fun Do you make any good friends Let’s listen to what two of the Grade Seven students say.
I live 67 the school, and there is always a lot of traffic at our school 68 [ge t]in the morning, so I 69 earlier than before. We have many subjects to 70 [l n]. They 71 [ n'klu:d] Chinese, Maths, English, Biology and so on. My favourite is Geography because the teacher 72 [si:mz] kind and we all like him. On 73 ['wenzde ] afternoons, we have different kinds of after-school activities. They are popular 74 [ 'm ] us. I play volleyball very well and I am 75 our school team. In October, we have our school Open Day. Parents come and visit our school on this day. We 76 them ________ our new school. They watch two of our lessons and know how we are doing at school. My school life is bus y and colourful and I 77 [In'd ] it. --Millie
Now I have a healthy diet and lifestyle. I loved hamburgers and cola. I seldom ate fruit or vegetables. What’s worse, sometimes I played 78 for hours. I have poor eyesight and wear 79 ['glɑ s z]. My teachers and classmates think I should 80 [t e nd ]. They help me a lot. After school, Simon always asks me to play football with him and teaches me some wonderful skills. I’m so thankful that I use my 81 to buy some stamps for him. I know he likes to 82 [k 'lekt] them. Mr. Wu takes us to the countryside 83 . We plant tomatoes, 84 [p 'te t z] and some other vegetables. We need to clear away the grass for them. 85 the students ________ the teachers have great fun. When we eat our homegrown vegetables, they 86 [te st] really delicious! --Daniel
B.认真阅读下面短文，根据所给首字母提示，写出一个合适的英语单词，使短文通顺。
In the world, football is the most popular sport. This is b 87 many countries have wonderful teams for the World Cup. It is held every four years. Two teams play the game. There are e 88 players in each team. The field must be about 100 m1 89 and 73m wide (宽). To score a goal, a player must kick the ball into the other team’s goal. They may use their f 90 , heads or other parts of the body, but they must not use their hands. However, the goalkeeper (守门员) may use his hands.
The World Cup makes more and more people i 91 in football. Do you know who is my favourite football player Messi. He is brave and works hard. He always p 92 playing football for more than 10 hours. He is my h 93 . I love him so much that I put up 1 94 of pictures of him on the walls of my bedrooms.
六、阅读短文，从五个选项中选用合适的四个，将文章补充完整（本题共4小题；每小题2分，满分8分。请将选项写在答题纸上。）
What makes an astronaut (航天员)
Being an astronaut is no easy job. 95 .
Astronauts need to (be)
·between 25 and 35 years old
·160 to 172 cm tall
·weigh 55-70 kg
Test 1: Stand strong g-forces (重力)
Usually, people can stand g-forces of 3G to 4G. 96 . That is to say, their body feels eight times heavier than usual. This can feel bad. Tears run from their eyes and they cannot breathe (呼吸).
Test 2: 97
Astronauts train (训练) by sitting on a fast-spinning (高速旋转的) chair or a big “swing” for 15 minutes. Sometimes, they can feel sick or even vomit (呕吐).
Test 3: Be ready for the weightless environment (失重环境)
To create a weightless environment on Earth, astronauts train inside a water tank There, they stay afloat (漂浮的) while moving around or carrying tools. 98 . After training, some of them are even too tired to hold chopsticks.
A. Astronauts are in good health B. But astronauts need to stand forces of up to 8G C. Keep good balance (平衡) D. Every time, they train in the tank for six hours E. They need to take some hard tests (测试)
七、阅读并完成相关任务（本题共6小题；每小题2分，满分12分。请将答案写在答题纸上。）
请认真阅读下面的短文，并根据短文内容完成相关任务。
Sally is talking to Judy on the phone. Here is their conversation.
Judy’s Mum: Hello
Sally: Hello, is that Judy
Judy’s Mum: No, this is her Mum. Who’s that
Sally: It’s Sally. I’m her friend from Tennis Club.
Judy’s Mum: Hold on, Sally. I’ll call her. Judy! Sally’s on the phone!
Judy: Hi, Sally! How are you We haven’t seen for ages!
Sally: I broke (摔断) my arm so I couldn’t play tennis. I’m better now, so let’s meet up.
Judy: Good idea! 101 do you want to meet
Sally: How about tomorrow I’m free all day.
Judy: I can’t meet in the morning but the afternoon should be fine.
Sally: How about a quarter past two
Judy: Fine. Where shall we meet
Sally: we, the, at, meet, shall, cinema I think we can watch the new 3D cartoon that came out last week.
Judy: OK! We can go for a pizza at the Italian café afterwards.
Sally: How about trying the new Thai restaurant or the big Chinese restaurant in the shopping centre
Judy: I had lunch at the Chinese restaurant yesterday. Let’s try the Thai restaurant.
Sally: Sure! Shall I book the table for five o’clock then we can have an early dinner
Judy: Great! I’ll get the cinema tickets online now. See you tomorrow.
（请将答案写在答题纸上。）
99. Judy and Sally know each other ________. (将选项填入 A. in Tennis Club B. in the same class)
100. We haven’t seen for ages! (翻译成中文)
________________________________________________________________
101. ________ do you want to meet (填入一个疑问词)
102. What about tomorrow I have time the whole day. (从Sally话中找出与它意思相同句子)
________________________________________________________________
103. we, the, at, meet, shall, cinema (连词成句)
________________________________________________________________
104. In which restaurant will they have dinner (回答问题)
________________________________________________________________
八、书面表达（本题满分25分。请将短文写在答题纸上。）
亲爱的同学们，进入初中，你们开启了一段新的旅程。假如你是七年级1班的班长Wendy，你要在班级做主题是“How to Enjoy a Wonderful Life”的英语演讲，请根据图片提示，联系自身经历，完成一篇英语发言稿。
要求：1.表达清楚，必须包含提示信息，并作适当发挥；
2.词数80字左右（开头已给出，不计入总词数）；
3.不得使用真实姓名和校名等。
How to Enjoy a Wonderful Life
As middle school students, we need to try our best to make our life wonderful. ____________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
_______________________________________________________________________________________________
2022～2023学年度第一学期期末考试
七年级英语参考答案及评分标准
第I卷 （选择题 共77分）
一、听力部分（本题共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分）
1~5 ABABB 6~10 BCCAA 11~15 BCBAB 16~20 BBCBC
二、单项选择（本题共15小题；每小题1分，满分15分）
21-25 CCCBD 26-30 BDDBC 31-35 BACBD
三、完型填空（本题共20小题；每小题1分，满分20分）
36-40 BCADD 41-45 CABCC 46-50 DBABC 51-55 DACAD
四、阅读理解（本题共11小题；每小题2分，满分22分）
56-58 CBB 59-62 DBCD 63-66 ABAC
第Ⅱ卷（非选择题 共73分）
五、词汇部分（本题共28小题；每小题1分，满分28分。 大小写不扣分）
A. 67. far away from 68. gate 69. wake up 70. learn
71. include 72. seems 73. Wednesday 74. among
75. a member of 76. show...around 77. enjoy puter games
79. glasses 80. change 81. pocket money 82. collect
83. twice a month 84. potatoes 85. Both...and 86. taste
B. 87. because 88. eleven 89. long 90. feet
91. interested 92. practises或practices 93. hero 94. lots
六、阅读短文，从五个选项中选用合适的四个，把文章补充完整（本题共4小题；每小题2分，满分8分。）
95-98 EBCD
七、阅读并完成相关任务（本题共6小题；每小题2分，满分12分。）
99. in Tennis Club
100. 我们好久没见了！（言之有理即可）
101. When
102. How about tomorrow I’m free all day.
103. Shall we meet at the cinema
104. They will eat in the new Thai restaurant. 或 (In) the (new) Thai restaurant
八、书面表达（本题满分25分）
Possible versions:
How to enjoy a wonderful life
As middle school students, we need to try our best to make our life wonderful.
From Monday to Friday, we work hard at school. We listen to the teachers and take notes carefully in class. After class, we read some books because reading helps us learn a lot about the world. Every afternoon, we should do some exercise like running and rope skipping to keep fit. We all have a good time.
On weekends, we have to finish our homework first. Then we can help our parents with some housework. We can cook some dishes and do some washing. Doing housework makes our family members closer. On Sundays we visit our grandparents and chat with them. It’s always busy but full of fun.
I hope all of us can enjoy a wonderful life!
评分标准
五、词汇部分
因书写潦草导致单词难以辨认的不得分。任何形式的错误均不得分。
六、阅读并完成相关任务
1.答题时用完全回答或简略回答均得分。
2.答题时如未依据文章内容作答或答非所问均不得分。
3.答题时要点正确，但有语法、拼写、标点符号等错误时酌情扣分。
八、书面表达
1. 阅卷应结合“内容”和“语言”两个方面进行评分。
2. 内容：根据图片提示并结合自身经历从学习、运动、阅读、劳动等方面谈谈如何享受生活，并要求至少拓展一点。
3. 语言：动词与句子层面（如句子结构）的错误视为大错；词语层面的短语（如搭配）、 词汇（如用词不当）等错误为小错；另有拼写、标点、大小写等错误酌情扣分。
4. 未分段写作扣 2分。
5. 词数少于 60 扣 2 分，多于 120 扣 1 分。
6. 因书写潦草导致字母或单词难以辨认或卷面不洁等情况扣 2 分。
各档次的给分范围和要求：
第五档（很好）：（21-25分）
完成了试题规定的全部任务：
1)覆盖所有要点内容。
2)语言表达形式多样，词汇丰富；允许有 3 处以下小错。
3)有效地使用连接成份，使全文结构紧凑，过渡自然。 第四档 (好)：(16-20分）
基本完成了试题规定的任务：
1)未能完全覆盖主要内容。
2)语法结构和词汇运用基本正确，允许有 2 处以下大错。
3)能应用连接成份，有助于全文结构紧凑，过渡自然。 第三档 (适当)：(11-15分）
基本完成了试题规定的任务：
1)虽漏掉少数要点，但基本覆盖主要内容。
2)语法结构和词汇应用基本正确，虽有一些错误，但不影响表达。
3)尚能注意语句间的连接，使内容连贯。第二档 (较差)：(6-10分）
未完成试题规定的全部任务：
1)漏掉或未写清楚一些主要内容，或写了一些无关内容。
2)语法结构简单，词汇单调；错误较多，影响表达。 第一档 (差)：(1-5分）
未完成试题规定的基本任务：
1)遗漏或未能表达要点内容，或写了一些无关内容。
2)错误很多，严重影响表达。
3)只写出了几个相关单词。
不得分：(0分） 未能表达出与试题有关的任何信息。

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