南安市 2022-2023学年度上学期初中期末教学质量监测
初二年英语试题
(满分 150分; 考试时间: 120分钟)
注意事项：
选择题每小题选出答案后，用2B铅笔把答题卡上对应题目的答案标号涂黑，如需改动，用橡皮擦干净后，再选涂其他答案标号。非选择题答案用0.5 毫米黑色墨水签字笔在答题卡上相应位置书写作答，在试题卷上答题无效。
I. 听力 (共三节, 20 小题; 每小题1.5分, 满分30分)
第一节 听下面五个句子，从每小题所给的 A、B、C三幅图中选出与句子内容相符的选项。 (每个句子读两遍)
第二节 听下面七段对话， 从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案。 (每段对话读两遍)
听第1段对话， 回答第6小题。
6. Which team will the woman join
A. The rowing team. B. The cycling team. C. The swimming team.
听第2段对话， 回答第7小题。
7. What kind of music does David like now
A. Folk music. B. Classical music. C. Pop music.
听第3段对话， 回答第8小题。
8. Who will clean the floor
A. Tom. B. Tom's dad. C. Tom's mom.
听第4段对话， 回答第9小题。
9. What does Michael think of Snow White
A. Boring. B. Interesting. C. Exciting.
听第5段对话, 回答第10、 1 1 小题。
10. How often does Lucy use the Internet
A. Twice a day. B. Twice a week. C. Twice a month.
11. What does Lucy often do on the Internet
A. Do some shopping. B. Watch movies. C. Search for information.
听第6段对话， 回答第12、13 小题。
12. When did Jim start to learn about Chinese medicine
A. Last year. B. Two years ago. C. Three years ago.
13. What is Helen going to be in the future
A. A pilot. B. A doctor. C. A teacher.
听第7段对话， 回答第14、 15 小题。
14. Where is Bob now
A. At home. B. In the hospital. C. In the park.
15. What's the relationship (关系) between the two speakers
A. Dad and daughter. B. Brother and sister. C. Teacher and student.
第三节 听短文，根据你所听到的短文内容，完成下面表格，每空填一词。 (短文读三遍)
How to Spend Our Free Time in a Right Way
What to do ◆Do some _16_ to keep healthy.
◆Listen to music to make us _17_.
◆Spend less time on computers. It is _18_ for our health and study.
◆Visit a _19_ and get some knowledge from it.
Conclusion (结论) Spend our free time in a right way, and it will _20_ us fun.
Ⅱ. 选择填空(共 15 小题; 每小题1分,满分15分)
从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
21.—The girl takes active part in the fight against COVID-19(新冠肺炎).
—Yes, we should learn from her.
A. a B. an C. the
22.— Guess what! Brian solved the problem any help.
——Really He is so smart.
A. with B. under C. without
23.—Gina, are rainforests important to us
—Yes. They can help to keep the beauty of nature and the climate.
A. control B. check C. record
24.—— I don't know when to take the medicine, Jack.
—You can read the first.
A. instruction B. dictionary C. question
25.——I am not sure I will win the game or not.
——I believe you can make it.
A. if B. that C. whether
26.—Look, the poor boy is . May I give some food to him, mom
——Sure, go ahead.
A. serious B. hungry C. angry
27. After two hours' hard work, they finished the work.
A. finally B. suddenly C. widely
28.— did you spend on the watermelon
——Twenty yuan.
A. How much B. How many C. How long
29. It is a rule that we ke ep quiet when reading in the library.
A. can B. may C. must
30.—You’d better Lily at 7:00 a. m. tomorrow, or she will be late.
——OK,I will.
A. give up B. wake up C. cheer up
31.——Don't lose in WeChat, Tom.
—I am sorry, dad. I won't do it again.
A. himself B. yourself C. myself
32.— Which is of all the movies this year
—I guess it is Moon Man. Over 3,000 million people saw it.
A. popular B. more popular C. the most popular
33.——If there is no buying and selling of animals, there will be no in nature.
——I think so. Animals should be our friends.
A. killing B. smoking C. feeling
34.—— Hi,I didn't see you at the art show last night.
——Oh,I my little brother at home at that time.
A. looked after B. am looking after C. was looking after
35.—— Would you mind if I close the window
—— . You know, we should keep the air fresh.
A. Never mind. B. You'd better not. C. Of course not.
III. 完形填空 (共 10 小题; 每小题1.5分, 满分15分)
阅读下面短文，从每小题所给的 A、B、C三个选项中，选出可以填入空白处的最佳选项。
“Bike buses”catch on as a cool way to go to school in many American communities. These young riders are led(带领) by adult volunteers(成年志愿者). Many families are riding bikes with friends instead of 36 cars in the morning.“Bike buses”are 37 popular in other countries, like Spain and Canada.
The activity is part of a call to ask more children to take 38 and reduce(减少) school drop-off traffic. Parents and kids both say it just makes the children 39 . The children are 40the bike bus ride. A 6-year-old girl, Clara said,“I like that I can get to ride with friends from school and that 41 is welcome.”
Minneapolis dad Olson held a bike bus for his school community.“We meet at 8 a. m. in the park,”Olson said.“Then we check our 42 and start our ride. After that, it's nothing 43 laughing,shouting and happiness.“The group makes about 8 stops 44 the way to pick up(接送) children,many of whom are together with their parents or older brothers or sisters. We want kids to celebrate going to school,”said Olson, adding that kids who take part in the ride can also 45 chatting with friends in different grades.
36. A. buying B. taking C. cleaning
37. A. also B. too C. enough
38. A. time B. money C. exercise
39. A. heavier B. happier C. lazier
40. A. worried about B. interested in C. surprised at
41. A. everyone B. nobody C. someone
42. A. trains B. cars C. bikes
43. A. so B. and C. but
44. A. along B. by C. in
45. A. hate B. enjoy C. prevent
IV. 阅读理解 (共两节, 25 小题; 满分45分)
第一节 阅读下列短文，根据短文内容，从题中所给的 A、B、C、D四个选项中，选出最佳答案。 (共 20 小题; 每小题2分, 满分40分)
A
Today I'd like to share some Chinese children's stories with you.
Do you like these stories If you'd like to learn more about Chinese children's stories, please
click(点击) here: https://www.
46. How many persons are there in the family of the big-head son
A. Two. B. Three. C. Four. D. Five.
47. The story of Sanmao was written by .
A. Hong Xuntao B. Zhen g Chunhua C. Zhang Leping D. Ma Liang
48. Ma Liang and the Magic Brush was rema de into a movie in .
A.1949 B.1955 C. 1995 D.2014
49. Which of the following is TRUE according to the text
A. The story of Sanmao was written in 1930.
B. All these three stories were written by Chinese writers.
C. Ma Liang has no money to take lessons, so he gives up painting.
D. In 1995, Big-Head son and Small-Head Dad first appeared in magazines.
50. Where can we know more about Chinese children's stories according to the text
A. On the Internet. B. In a novel. C. In a newspaper. D. In a storybook.
B
Among all of my teachers, I loved my first-grade teacher most. Her name was Ms. Gross. She had a sweet smile. She was very friendly to us and never shouted at us. We all loved her. My happiest school memories(回忆) are of the times I spent in her classroom.
One such memory is still with me to this day. We were doing math problems that were written on the blackboard. Ms. Gross walked through the classroom, checking on our work. I finished first and looked up as Ms. Gross walked up behind me. She looked at my work carefully and smiled. Then she said,“This is great work, Joe. You are a smart boy.”As she walked on, she gently touched(温柔地抚摸)my head. I felt so happy to hear what she said. From then on, I wanted to be as smart as she thought I was. I worked hard to be the best person I could be.
As the poet(诗人) David Whyte wrote,“People are hungry, and one good word is bread for a thousand.”Ms. Gross showed me how much one person could influence(影响) another. Every kind word is a treasure(财富).
51. What does the writer think of Ms. Gross
A. Kind. B. Funny. C. Smart. D. Boring.
52. When Ms. Gross walked through the classroom, the writer was .
A. eating bread B. looking around
C. doing math problems D. checking on his work
53. What's the right order of the following things according to Paragraph 2
① I finished my work and looked up.
② Ms. Gross gently touched my head.
③ Ms. Gross walked through the classroom.
④ Ms. Gross looked at my work carefully and smiled.
A. ③④①② B. ③①④② C. ①③④② D. ①③②④
54. The writer worked hard because .
A. he did badly in his study B. he liked doing math problems
C. he wanted to be a teacher D. he wanted to be the best person he could be
55. What does the underlined sentence in the last paragraph mean
A. Bread is good for us.
B. Bread is as important as one good word.
C. When we are hungry, we need to eat something.
D. What a person says has a great influence on others.
C
Are you ready to cook, clean or grow plants Starting from September, students in primary and middle schools began to have at least one labor class a week. They try different kinds of labor and learn different life skills. Through such classes, students can learn the meaning of labor and its importance.
In fact, some schools already(已经) had interesting labor classes. Kids from a school in Chongqing had a class about catching loaches(泥鳅) in the river and learned about their habits. In Fenyi, Jiangxi,kids made tofu with a millstone(磨盘). They also tasted tofu made by themselves.“We learn about the smarts and hard work of our ancestors(祖先),”said Lin Boxuan, a fift h grader.
There are some labor skills you need to learn, such as cooking two or three dishes, like scrambled (炒) eggs with tomatoes, planting vegetables or looking after animals and washing vegetables or fruit.Some kids also keep small animals at home, like chickens. They can learn how baby chickens are born and take care of them.
Labor courses can help students to be creative(有创造力的) and happy. Do it now! Learn different labor skills to make life more colorful.
56. When did students in primary and middle schools start to have labor classes
A. From January. B. From May. C. From September. D. From December.
57. What is the purpose(目的) of labor classes
A. To help students study well.
B. To help students keep animals.
C. To make schools more beautiful.
D. To help students learn the importance of labor.
58. Kids from schools in Fenyi had a class about .
A. catching loaches B. making tofu C. keeping animals D. planting vegetables
60. Which of the following shows the structure(结构) of the text
The World Cup is an international football competition (比赛) that is held every four years.
The first World Cup event was held in 1930 and it has only been canceled(取消) twice in the history of the competition —— in 1942 and 1946, because of the Second World War. The World Cup can be held anywhere in the world. In 2018 the host country was Russia, in 2014 it was Brazil, in 2010 it was South Africa, and this year, in 2022, the host country was the State of Qatar. It is the first time that a country in the Middle East has hosted the World Cup and only the second time that a country in Asia(亚洲) has hosted the competition.
While the World Cup is usually held in the months of June and July. It is very hot in Qatar during the summer months, so the competition was held in November and December this year.
There were national teams taking part. These teams were decided through matches. There were 64matches played over the 28 - day World Cup in 2022. These matches were held in eight stadiums(体育场) across the State of Qatar. The opening match was played at Al Bayt Stadium on November 21st between Qatar and Ecuador after the opening ceremony(仪式).
61. The World Cup in 2022 was held in .
A. Brazil B. the State of Qatar C. Russia D. South Africa
62. What does the underlined word“it”in Paragraph 2 refer to
A. The World Cup. B. The first World Cup.
C. The host country. D. The Second World War.
63. When was the last day of the 2022 World Cup
A. On November 21. B. On November 28.
C. On December 18. D. On December 21.
64. What can we know from the text
A. The next World Cup will be held in 2026.
B. The World Cup was only canceled in 1942.
C. The world Cup is usually held in November and December.
D. It is the first time that a country in Asia has hosted the World Cup in 2022.
65. What would be the best title for the text
A. The State of Qatar B. The 2022 World Cup
C. The First World Cup D. An International Football Competition
第二节 阅读下面短文，从短文后所给的五个选项中选出能填入短文空白处的最佳选项，使短文通顺、连贯， 意思完整。(共 5 小题； 每小题1分，满分5分)
E
Because of COVID-19, we have to keep our distance(距离) from others. 66 ★Do a dance
Do you know Liu Genghong His workout routines(健身操) are getting popular now. Can you dance with him 67 Choose an easy dance and it's a good way of greeting.
★Wave(挥手) at the person
Who said waving is only OK when you are far from your friends Waving at a friend in front of you is OK, too.
★ 68
A nice head no d can be a cool way of greeting. Maybe doing in front of a mirror(镜子) a few times can help you do it better. Many people enjoy this way because they think it's easy.
★Just say hello
69 It's OK to say hello to someone. Then we can ask some other questions, like “How are you ”or“What are you doing ”
★Send a picture
It sounds funny. Why don't we just talk to others when we stand in front of them 70 ★Share hand sanitizer(洗手液)
During COVID-19, nothing is better than giving others some sanitizer to make their hands clean.We can also have a small talk with each other when we wash hands together.
A. Give a nod(点头).
B. We don't need to touch others when we greet them.
C. But when we want to greet others, what should we do
D. In fact, sending a picture makes greeting special and interesting.
E. When we meet our friends, it must be interesting to dance together.
V. 情景交际 (共 5小题; 每小题2分,满分 10分)
根据情景提示，完成下列各题。
71. 和 Mike 相约参加志愿者活动，你想知道见面的时间，可以这样问：
,Mike
72. 你打电话要找的人不在，你想留言，可以这样问：
Can
73. 你看见 Alice 在太阳下看书，你可以这样劝诫她：
,Alice.
74.朋友脸色不好，你想知道他怎么了，可以这样问：

75. 看到一些美丽的花，你可以这样感叹：
!
VI. 看图写话 (共 5 小题; 每小题2分,满分10分)
根据每小题所提供的图画情景和提示词，写出一个与图画情景相符的句子。
VII. 短文填空(共 10 小题; 每小题1分, 满分10 分)
阅读下面短文，根据语境、音标或所给单词的提示，在每个空格内填入一个恰当的词，要求所填的词意义准确、形式正确，使用短文意思完整、行文连贯。
Do you have any idea about what to do before, during and after an earthquake To keep you safe,here is some 81 / d'va s/.
An earthquake can be very serious, so 82 is necessary to prepare yourself and your family for it. All family members(成员) should know how to turn off gas, water and electricity(电).They should also know some important telephone 83 (number), such as 120, 119 and so on.
During an earthquake, keeping calm is 84 (use) for you. If you are indoors, move to a safe place in the room 85 (quick), for example, under a strong desk or table. By doing this,you can 86 /pr 'tekt/ yourself from falling things. Remember to stay away from windows, tall furniture, heavy pictures and so on. If you are 87 (cook), turn off the gas at once. If you are outdoors, move to a 88 /klI / area like a playground. Get away from buildings, bridges and trees. If you are driving, stop the car as soon as possible 89 then find a safe place to park.
After an earthquake, don't run out 90 the building when the shaking stops. You had better stay in your sa fe place until the shaking stops for l or 2 minutes. Check around you, then help the people who are injured.
VIII. 书面表达 (满分15分)
91.假如你是李华， 学校英语俱乐部正在调查同学们的理想职业， 请你根据以下表格， 写一篇发言稿， 向俱乐部成员介绍你的理想职业。词数70左右
问题 参考词汇
1. What do you want to be in the future a teacher, musician, scientist...
2. What do you often do in your free time read, play the piano, play basketball...
3. How are you going to make your dream come true (实现) It's difficult to... but..., do one's best, Firstly, Secondly, Thirdly...
注意事项：
1. 必须包含所提示信息，可适当发挥，开头结尾已给出，不计入总词数；
2. 意思清楚，表达通顺， 行文连贯，书写规范；
3.请勿在文中使用真实的姓名、校名及地名。
Dear teachers and classmates.
I'm very happy I can have a talk about my dream here. I want to be a/an...
That's all. Thank you.
八年级英语试题参考答案及评分标准
I. 听力 (共30分)
第一节 听句子: 1——5 BACCA
第二节 听对话: 6——10 BCBAB 11——15 CBAAC
第三节 听短文: 16. sports 17. relax 18. bad 19. museum 20. bring
评分标准：每小题 1.5 分，形式错误不得分； 首字母大小写错误不扣分。
II. 选择填空 (共 15分)
21—25 BCAAC 26—30 BAACB 31—35 BCACB
评分标准：每小题 1 分。
III. 完形填空 (共15分)
36—40 BACBB 41—45 ACCAB
评分标准: 每小题 1.5 分。
IV. 阅读理解 (共45分)
A 篇 46—50 BCDBA B篇 51—55 ACBDD
C 篇 56—60 CDBAA D篇 61—65 BCCAD
评分标准：每小题2分。
E篇 66—70 CEABD
评分标准：每小题 1 分。
V. 情景交际 (共10分)
71. When/What time shall we meet, Mike
72. Can I leave a message
73. Don't/You shouldn't/You had better not read in the sun, Alice.
74. What's wrong/the matter(with you)/What's up
75. What beautiful flowers(they are)/How beautiful the flowers are!
评分标准：每小题 2 分。能按照要求写出正确的内容，得 2 分； 能写出主要句子结构, 得 1-1.5 分; 能传递个别信息, 得 0.5 分。
VI. 看图写话 (共10分)
76. They are going to/will plant a tree tomorrow.
77. His hobby is skating/Skating is his hobby.
78. She/The girl is good at playing the violin.
79. The coffee/cup of coffee is cheaper than the tea/cup of tea.
80. They keep the room/ house clean.
评分标准：每小题2分。能够写出一个符合图意的完整、正确的句子，得2分； 能基本说明图意， 写出主要句子结构，得1-1.5分； 能传递个别信息，得0.5分。
VII. 短文填空(共 10分)
81. advice 82. it 83. numbers 84. useful 85. quickly
86. protect 87. cooking 88. clear 89. and 90. of
评分标准：每小题 1 分，形式错误不得分；首字母大小写错误不扣分。
VIII. 书面表达(共15分)
91. 参考范文:
Dear teachers and classmates,
I'm very happy I can have a talk about my dream here. I want to be a Chinese teacher when I grow up. When I am free, l often read. I love poems, and reading poems makes me excited. I want to bring our language and culture to the world.
It's difficult to become an excellent Chinese teacher but I will do my best. Firstly, I'm going to read as much as possible. Secondly, I will ask my Chinese teacher for help if I have problems. I will learn from her. Thirdly, I plan to teach kids as a teacher in my holidays, so that I can prepare to be a true teacher.
All in all, I'm going to do everything I can to make my dream come true.
That's all. Thank you.
评分标准：
1、先定档再定分，即按照评分标准中的各档次要求确定第几档，再根据错误的数量和性质确定该档次的具体得分；
2、 介于两档之间的分数分别为 12.5 分、 9.5 分、 6.5 分和 3.5 分;
3、第三档的 9 分可视为“及格分”作为定档次的参照。
各档次的给分范围和要求：
第五档 13-15 分 包含所有信息，内容完整，语句通顺，意思连贯。没有或基本没有语法、拼写错误， 书写规范， 词数符合要求。
第四档 10-12 分 包含大部分信息， 内容较完整，表达基本清楚，语句较通顺，有少量语法、拼写错误。书写规范， 词数基本符合要求。
第三档 7-9 分 写出基本信息，语句基本通顺，但句子较简单，表达不够清楚，有部分语法、拼写错误。 书写基本规范。
第二档 4-6 分 写出部分信息，表达不清楚，有较多的语法和拼写错误。
第一档 1-3 分 仅能传递个别信息， 通篇仅有个别句子可读。
0 分 只字未写，或写的内容与所要求的内容无关。
说明：若写出自己和老师的真实姓名或学校的真实名称酌情扣分。
初二年英语听力材料
I. 听力 (共三节, 20小题, 每小题1.5分, 满分30分)
第一节 听句子 听下面五个句子，从每小题所给的三幅图中选出与句子内容相符的选项。(每个句子读两遍)
1. My mother is feeding a hen now.
2. The man had a terrible headache yesterday.
3. Jane is f ond of collecting coins.
4. Every day they do morning exercises to keep fit.
5. The Beijing 2022 Olympic Winter Games lasted from February 4th to 20th.
第二节 听对话 听下面七段对话，从每小题所给的A、B、C三个选项中选出正确答案。(每段对话读两遍)
听第1段对话，回答第 6 小题。
M: Which team will you join, the rowing team or the cycling team
W: The cycling team. You know, I often ride bikes with my friends.
听第2段对话，回答第7小题。
W: What kind of music do you like, David
M: It's hard to say. I used to enjoy classical music and folk music, but now I like pop music.
听第3段对话，回答第8小题。
M: Must I clean the floor after dinner, mom
W: No, you don't have to, Tom. Your dad will do it instead.
听第4段对话，回答第9小题。
W: I think the story Snow White is interesting and exciting. And you, Michael
M: I don't agree with you. I think it's boring.
听第5段对话， 回答第10、11 两个小题。
M: Wow, your pen looks very nice, Lucy. Where did you buy it
W: On the Internet. It is popular to do some shopping online nowadays.
M: You are right. Then how often do you use the Internet
W: Twice a week.
M: What do you often do online
W: I often search for information about English learning. And sometimes I watch movies.
听第6段对话， 回答第12、 13 两个小题。
W: Hello, Jim. What book are you reading
M:I am reading a book about Chinese medicine, Helen. My mother bought it for me last year.
W: When did you start to learn about Chinese medicine
M: Two years ago. You know, I want to be a doctor in the future. That's my dream. What about you
W: I am going to be a pilot. I like flying in the sky.
M: Wow, your dream is so great.
W: Oh, it's time for class. Stop talking. Our English teacher is coming.
M:OK.
听第7段对话， 回答第14、15 两个小题。
M: Is everyone here now, Kate
W: No, Bob is not here.
M: What's the matter with him
W: He fell off his bike in the park yesterday and hurt his right leg.
M: I am sorry to hear that. Did he go to hospital
W: Yes, and the doctor asked him not to move his right le g too much. Now he is staying in bed at home.
M: How long will he ask for leave
W: About one week.
M: Tell him to have a good rest and don't worry about his lesson. I will help him with it.
W: OK, Mr. Brown.
第三节 听短文 根据你所听到的短文内容， 完成下面表格，每空填一词。 (短文读三遍)
Good morning, everyone! I’m glad to be here and tell you something about“how to spend our free time in a right way”.
First, we should do some sports. It can help to build us up and keep us healthy. Second, we can listen to music in our free time because it can make us relax. Third, we had better spend less time on computers. It is bad for our health and study. At last, we can visit a museum and get some knowledge from it. After that, we can study better.
In a word, if we spend our free time in a right way, it will bring us fun.
Thank you for listening!

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